ETEA MDCAT 2013 Past Paper With Explanation

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Prepare for the ETEA MDCAT 2013 with our comprehensive past paper and explanation guide. Gain valuable insights into the exam format, question types, and essential topics covered. Our detailed explanations will help you understand the reasoning behind each answer, allowing you to strengthen your knowledge and improve your performance. Get a head start on your exam preparation and increase your chances of success with our ETEA MDCAT 2013 past paper and explanation resource.

QUESTION: I keep the butter in the fridge. Select the correct passive voice:
A. In the fridge the butter is kept by me.
B. By me is the butter dept in the fridge.
C. The butter is kept by me in the fridge.
D. Dept in the fridge by me is the butter.
EXPLANATION
The explanation for this question will be added soon.

QUESTION: Fire destroyed the top floor of the building:
A. The top floor of the building got destroyed by fire
B. By fire was destroyed the top floor of the building.
C. Destroyed by fire was the top floor of the building.
D. The top floor of the building was destroyed by fire
EXPLANATION
The explanation for this question will be added soon.

QUESTION: APPRAISE‘ means:
A. Tell a story at bed time
B. Evaluate the quality of
C. Do shopping in a bazaar
D. Praise a man out of place
EXPLANATION
Appraise means to evalute the quality of assess

QUESTION: (Fix this) Please help someone the house is ….life.
A. at
B. in
C. on
D. by
EXPLANATION
The explanation for this question will be added soon.

QUESTION: CRANKY SPOUSE‘ implies:
A. A carefully selected loving partner of life
B. Fussy and bad-tempered wife or husband
C. Money squandering younger second wife
D. A device fitted behind the rear seat of a car
EXPLANATION
Cranky means to be bad-tempered or irritable, whereas spouse is ones significant other i.e theri husband or wife, therefore the answer will be B

QUESTION: Select the correct sentence:
A. Farid and javed both are good swimmers.
B. Both farid and javed are good swimmers.
C. Good swimmers are Farid and faved both.
D. Swimmers are good both Farid and faved
EXPLANATION
The explanation for this question will be added soon.

QUESTION: An ELEGY‘ is a poem written:
A. In the memory of a little child
B. On the sighting of an old tutor
C. In the love of dear sweetheart
D. On the death of someone dear
EXPLANATION
An elegy is a form of poetry in which the poet or speaker expresses grief sadness, or loss and is traditionally written in response to the death of a person or group, therefore the answer will be D

QUESTION: (Fix this) My children don‘t approve….. my smoking
A. I
B. of
C. on
D. at
EXPLANATION
The explanation for this question will be added soon.

QUESTION: BREAK THE ICE‘ Implies:
A. Walk on ice-heet
B. Swallow ice-cubes
C. Chisel an ice-block
D. To make a beginning
EXPLANATION
It means to do or say something to relieve tension or get conversations going in a strained situation or when strangers meet, hence the answer will be D

QUESTION: (Fix this) Select the correct sentence:
A. Certainly she is the best person for the job.
B. She is the best person for the job certainly.
C. She is certainly the best person for the job.
D. The best person certainly she is for the job.
EXPLANATION
The explanation for this question will be added soon.

QUESTION: DENOUNCE‘ means:
A. To reject straight away
B. To praise in a meeting
C. To condemn publicly
D. To negoticate secretly
EXPLANATION
Denounce means to publicly condemn against something or someone, therefore the answer will be C

QUESTION: (fix this) The police arrested him for dangerous driving. Select the correct passive voice:
A. He was arrested for dangerous driving by the police
B. He was arrested by the police for dangerous driving
C. For dangerous driving he was arrested by the polic
D. By the police was he arrested for dangerous driving
EXPLANATION
The explanation for this question will be added soon.

QUESTION: Seaginella is the living member of:
A. Psilopslda
B. Lycopsida
C. Sphenopsida
D. Pterosida
EXPLANATION
Selaginella belongs to the class of lycopodiopsida as it has scale-leaves bearing a ligule and has spores of 2 types. Hence, the correct answer will be B.

QUESTION: Contraction can be sustained for a long period of time by:
A. Skeletalmuscles
B. Smoothmuscles
C. Cardiacmuscles
D. All of the above
EXPLANATION
Smooth muscles use ation potentials so they can contract for longer

QUESTION: (fix this) Aromatic compounds generally burn with smoky llame because:
A. Skeletal muscles
B. Smooth muscles
C. Cardiac muscles
D. All of the above
EXPLANATION
Aromatic compounds have a ring structure of carbon atoms which results in incomplete combustion hence a smoky flame

QUESTION: Amount of DNA in bacterial cell is:
A. 1%
B. 2%
C. 3%
D. 4%
EXPLANATION
Bacterial cells have 1% DNA, as they are smaller cells.

QUESTION: Keratinized Epithelium is found in the:
A. Hair
B. Skin
C. Bone
D. Muscle
EXPLANATION
Keratinized epithelium is a stratified squamous epithelium (consisting of flattened squamous cells arranged in layers upon the basal membrane), found in skin, epidermis of palm, sole of foot etc, therefore the answer is B.

QUESTION: Mushrooms belong to:
A. Zygomycota
B. Ascomcota
C. Basidiomycota
D. Deutetoinycota
EXPLANATION
Mushrooms belong to the phylum basidiomycota as they have a stem (stipe), a cap (pileus), and gills (lamella) on the underside of the cap, hence the answer is C.

QUESTION: In,chick development gives rise to:
A. Ectoderm & Endoderm
B. Ectoderm & Mesoderm
C. Mesoderm & Endoderm
D. Mesoderm only
EXPLANATION
In chick development gives rise to ectoderm and endoderm. In chick embryos, the ectoderm and endoderm cells ultimately give rise to different tissues and organs.  Ectoderm cells generate the skin and neural tissue. Endoderm cells become the lining of the gastrointestinal and the respiratory tracts.

QUESTION: Changes in gene frequencies in small population by chance is called:
A. Gene pool
B. Genetic dolt
C. Gene mutation
D. Gene flow
EXPLANATION
Genetic drift is a mechanism of evolution, it refers to random fluctuations in the frequencies of alleles from generation to generation due to chance of events, therefore the answer will be B

QUESTION: (Fix this) N2(g) 1 3H2 (g) 1 2NH3(g), △H= 46.1 kj/mole For the reaction above which statement is true about the equilibrium constant (Keg):
A. Keg Increases with increase in temperature
B. Keg decreases with Increase in temperature
C. Keg decreases with Increase in pressure
D. Keg increases with decrease in pressure
EXPLANATION
The explanation for this question will be added soon.

QUESTION: Number of chromosomes in Tobacco is:
A. 45
B. 48
C. 46
D. 47
EXPLANATION
Tobacco is an allopolyploid species (n=24 in a gamete) , hence the answer will be 2x24 B

QUESTION: Appendix is vestigial in man but may play role in:
A. Digestion
B. Excretion
C. Immunity
D. Movement
EXPLANATION
The appendix has been found to play a role in mammalian mucosal immune function. It is believed to be involved in extrathymically derived T-lymphocytes and B-lymphocyte mediated immune responses, it is also said to produce early defenses that help prevent serious infections in humans, therefore the answer is C

QUESTION: Urea formation occurs in:
A. Kidney
B. Liver
C. Spleen
D. Lungs
EXPLANATION
The conversion of ammonia to urea takes place in the liver through a cyclical process called urea cycle. Hence the answer will be B

QUESTION: Phagocytosis, pinocytosis and autophagy are the functions of:
A. Golgi-Apparatus
B. Lysosomes
C. Peroxisomes
D. Glyoxisomes
EXPLANATION
Lysosomes perform phagocytosis, pinocutosis and autophagy as they contain enzymes to digest foreign material and casue cell death

QUESTION: (fix this) A students measures a current as O.Sa. which of the following correctly expresses this result?
A. 50 mA
B. 50 MA
C. 500 mA
D. 500 MA
EXPLANATION
The explanation for this question will be added soon.

QUESTION: Spiders belong to class:
A. Crustacean
B. Myriapoda
C. Arychnida
D. Hexapoda
EXPLANATION
Spiders belong to the class of arachnida which is a class of joint legged invertebrate animals therefore the answer is C

QUESTION: Polysaccharide cellulose is the building material of:
A. Primary cell-wall
B. Secondary cell-wall
C. Middle lamella
D. Plasma membrane
EXPLANATION
Cellulose contains lignin, a polysaccharide that is the building material of the secondary cell wall in plants hence the answer is B

QUESTION: Lobsters belong to class:
A. Myriapoda
B. Arychnida
C. Hexapoda
D. Crustacean
EXPLANATION
Crustaceans form a very large group of arthropods, which includes crabs, lobsters, crayfish etc. they are distinguished from other grps, like insects by possession of biramous limbs an the nauplius form of the larvae. Hence the answer will be D

QUESTION: Pigeon odour is released from the water bloom of:
A. Slime mold
B. Water mold
C. Cyanobacteria
D. Cyanobacteria Algae ponds
EXPLANATION
Algae ponds produce pungent odor

QUESTION: Brunner‘s glands are found in:
A. Stomach
B. Duodenum
C. Ileum
D. Colon
EXPLANATION
Brunner’s glands are branched tubular mucus glands normally found in the mucosa and submucosa of the duodenum, therefore the answer will be B

QUESTION: An organism that adopts saprophytic mode of nutrition during part of its life is called:
A. Facultative saprophyte
B. Facultative parasite
C. Obligate saprophyte
D. Obligate parasite
EXPLANATION
Saprophytic is the mode of nutrition in which organisms feed on dead and decayed matter, a facultative saprophyte ia a mainly parasitic organism with the ability to survive for a part of its life cycle as a saprophyte, therefore the answer will be A

QUESTION: Erepsin acts upon:
A. Polypeptides
B. Carbohydrates
C. Dipeptides
D. Fats
EXPLANATION
Erepsin consists of many enzymes, it works best in alkaline pH, it doesnt act upon proteins but does act upon lower peptides like dipeptides, hence the answer will be C

QUESTION: microsporum furfur causes:
A. athlete‘s foot
B. ring wormergot
C. dandruff
EXPLANATION
Microsporum furfur is a fungus that causes ring worms, hence the answer is B

QUESTION: The gills are covered by operculum in
A. Bony fishes
B. Cartllaginous fishes
C. Lung fishes
D. Jawless fishes
EXPLANATION
The operculum is a hard, plate-like bony flap that covers the gills of a bony fish protecting the gills and also serves a role in respiration, hence the answer will be A

QUESTION: A sporophyle that depends on gametophytes is:
A. Adlantum
B. Pinus
C. Marchantia
D. Mustard-plant
EXPLANATION
Bryophytes (mosses, liverworts and hornworts) have dominant gametophyte phase on which the adult sporophyte is depended for nutrition, marchantia is a type of bryophyte

QUESTION: Which is not correct about polyvinyl chloride?
A. It is used in large scale production of cable insulator
B. It is a copolymer
C. It is a homopolymer
D. It is used in the manufacturing of pipes
EXPLANATION
Polyvinyl chloride is a homopolymer not a coploymer hence the answer is B

QUESTION: Replication progresses at a rate of about 50 base pairs per second in:
A. Bacteria
B. Virus
C. Eukaryote
D. All of the above
EXPLANATION
In eukaryotes like humans , dna is replicated at about 50 base pairs per second, therefore the answer will be C

QUESTION: The pigments of chlorophyll a,b, and carotenoids are present in:
A. Stroma
B. Grana
C. Thalakoid membrane
D. Crista
EXPLANATION
Chlorophyll a, b and carotenoids are found in the thylakoid membrane, hence the answer will be C

QUESTION: Which one of the following animals is filter feeder?
A. Teeth
B. Sycon
C. Fresh water muscle
D. Jelly fish
EXPLANATION
Sycon are sponges that receive food particles with the help of collar cells, therefore are called filter feeders.

QUESTION: Myoglobin is found in:
A. Bone
B. Connective tissue
C. Muscles
D. Cartilage
EXPLANATION
Myoglobin is found in the heart and skeletal muscles, hence the answer will be C

QUESTION: Thalassaemia major is also known as:
A. Sickle cell anemia
B. Cooley‘s anemia
C. Mycocystic anemia
D. Nutritional anemia
EXPLANATION
Thalassaemia major is also known as cooleys anemia

QUESTION: The birds excrete:
A. Ammonia
B. Urea
C. Uric acid
D. Acetic acid
EXPLANATION
Nitrogenous waste is excreted in the form of uric acid in birds

QUESTION: Bulliform cells are present in:
A. Grasses
B. Under ground stems
C. Fruit-nuts
D. Cabbage leaves
EXPLANATION
Bulliform cells or motor cells are large, bubble-shaped epidermal cells that occur in grps on the upper surface of the leaves of many monocots, grass is monocot and contain bulliform cells

QUESTION: Bone is surrounded by a membrane called:
A. Perichondrium
B. Prostomium
C. Perlmyclum
D. Perlostium
EXPLANATION
The tough, thin outer membrane covering the bones is called periosteum

QUESTION: A hormone that prevents senescence in leaves, is:
A. Auxin
B. Gibberellins
C. Cytokinin
D. Abscisic acid
EXPLANATION
Leaf senescence is a degenerative process among which cellular organelles and biomolecules are broke down and resultant catabolites are mobilized to sink tissues such as reproductive organs and new leaves, cytokinins help to maintain the plant celland expression of cytokinin biosynthesis genes late in development prevents leaf senescence,hence the answer will be C

QUESTION: Messer‘s capsules are the receptors for
A. Temperature
B. Pain
C. Pressure
D. Touch
EXPLANATION
Mesissner corpuscles are an integral aspect of the human sensory system, required for discriminatory touch and grip control. Therefore the answer will be D

QUESTION: Florigen is produced by:
A. Flowers
B. Flower-buds
C. Leaves
D. Fruits
EXPLANATION
Florigen is a hormone generated in leaf vasculature, transported to the shoot apical meristem and promote flowering, hence the correct options is C

QUESTION: Who used puzzle boxes in experiment on animal learning?
A. Pavlove
B. E.L. Thorndike
C. Konrad Lorenz
D. Kohle
EXPLANATION
Edward Thorndike studied learning in animals (usually cats). He devised a classic experiment in which he used a puzzle box to empirically test the laws of learning, hence the answer will be B

QUESTION: Which one of the following animals is viviparous?
A. Rat
B. Kangaroo
C. Duckbilled platypus
D. Spiny ant eater
EXPLANATION
Viviparous species are those who give birth to living young ones directly instead of eggs, rats are viviparous, therefore the correct answer will be A

QUESTION: Cristea of mitochondria are the sites of:
A. Electron transport chain
B. Photophosphorylation
C. Krebs cycle
D. Glycolysis
EXPLANATION
Mitochondrial cristae are the main sites of biological energy conversion in all non-photosynthetic eukaryotes, like the electron transport chain, therefore the answer will be A

QUESTION: muscles develop from:
A. ectoderm
B. mesoderm
C. endoderm
D. all of the above
EXPLANATION
Muscles and bones are formed from the mesoderm, therefore the correct answer will be B

QUESTION: Bacteria maintain their survival by the formation of:
A. Hormogonia
B. Akinetes
C. Endospores
D. Zygospores
EXPLANATION
Bacteria maintain their survival via the formation of endospores, C

QUESTION: Avery, Macleod and McCarty repeated the Griffith experiment in the year:
A. 1869
B. 1928
C.  1944
D. 1952
EXPLANATION
16 years later in 1944 they repeated the griffith experiment to figure out what component of the dead S strain of bacteria were responsible for the transformation, hence the answer will be C

QUESTION: (Fix this) Microvillae are also called:
A. Leaf veins
B. Cristae
C. Capillaries
D. Leaf midribs
EXPLANATION
The explanation for this question will be added soon.

QUESTION: Cell death due to tissue damage is called:
A. Cancer
B. Apoptosis
C. Necrosis
D. Metastasis
EXPLANATION
Necrosis is a form of cell injury which results in the premature death of cells in living cells by autolysis. Hence the answer will be C

QUESTION: The two chains of DNA occur side by side in a:
A. Straight direction
B. Parallel but straight
C. Parallel but opposite
D. Parallel, opposite and folded spirally
EXPLANATION
Dna molecules have a antiparallel structure, the two strands of the helix run in opposite directions to one another

QUESTION: In which of the following the phenotypic and genotypic ratio is the same?
A. Co-dominance
B. Over dominance
C. Epitasis
D. Incomplete dominance
EXPLANATION
In incomplete dominance, a monohybrid cross shows the results as in the figure below,here the genotypic and phenotypic ratios are the same, therefore the correct answer will be D

QUESTION: A cell-wall that is composed of sugar and amino acids is called:
A. Murein
B. Chitin
C. Lignin
D. Pectin
EXPLANATION
Peptidoglycan or murein is a polymer consisting of sugars and amino acids that forms a mesh-like peptidoglycan layer outside the plasma membrane of most bacteria, forming the cell wall, the correct answer would be A

QUESTION: A plant or animal modified by genetic engineering is called:
A. Transgenic
B. Probe
C. Recombinant
D. Plasmid
EXPLANATION
These plants and animals are called transgenic or genetically modified organisms, a probe is a single stranded DNA or RNA sequence used to search for its complementary sequence. A plasmid is a small circular double stranded DNA found in bacteria and used for storing and studying genes whereas a recombinant DNA is one that takes up fpreign gene, hence the answer will be A

QUESTION: When the entire body of a bacterium is covered by flagella, such a bacterium is called:
A. Atrichous
B. Lopho-trichous
C. Lampi trichous
D. Peri-trichaus
EXPLANATION
Bacteria bearing flagellum all over the body are called peritrichous, atrichous are those without any flagellum. Hence the correct answer will be D

QUESTION: (Fix this) Phosphorus trihalides are readily hydrolysed as shown below:  PX3 + 3H2O → H3PO3 + 3HX Generally moving from fluorine to iodine rate of hydrolysis:
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remalns unchanged
D. First increases and then decreases
EXPLANATION
The explanation for this question will be added soon.

QUESTION: Nucleus was discovered by:
A. Waldyne
B.  T.H. Margan
C. Robert Brown
D. Kohler
EXPLANATION
In 1831, Robert Brown discovered the nucleus in the cell, therefore the answer will be C

QUESTION: (Fix this) Which of the following is not a nucleophile?
A. NH3
B. HO
C. HC = CH
D. Br2
EXPLANATION
The explanation for this question will be added soon.

QUESTION: Stroma of chloroplasts carries the fixation of
A. N2
B. O 2
C. CO2
D. NH3
EXPLANATION
The stroma contain the enzymes necessary for carbon fixation

QUESTION: What will be the anti-coden of AUG?
A. TAC
B. ATC
C. UAC
D. UTC
EXPLANATION
AUG is the start codon that signals ribosomes to place in the amino acid methionine because the tRNA the tRNA that has methionine attached to it has the anticodon sequence UAC. therefore the answer will be C

QUESTION: Potatoe plastids, which store starch, are known a
A. Paramylum
B. Amyloplasts
C. Leucoplasts
D. glycoplasts
EXPLANATION
Amyloplasts are plastids that produce and store starch within internal membrane compartments, commonly found in vegattive plant tissues such as tubers(potatoes) and bulbs

QUESTION: Which has the lowest temperature?
A. Troposphere
B. Stratosphere
C. Mesosphere
D.  Thermosphere
EXPLANATION
The top of the mesosphere, called the mesopause is the coldest part of the earth’s atmosphere averaging about minus 130 degrees F, hence the correct answer will be C

QUESTION: The prelix tera‘ stands for
A. 104
B. 104
C. 104
D. 1012
EXPLANATION
Tera denotes multiplication by one trillion or 1012

QUESTION: The phenomenon that a seed fails to germinate in spite of providing all conditions necessary for germination, is
A. Photoperiodism
B. Vernalization
C. Dormancy
D. phytochrome
EXPLANATION
Seeds of some plants do not germinate even under favourable conditions. This is called dormancy, it is under endogenous control

QUESTION: (fix this) Which one of the following is a sex-linked inheritance?
A. Baidness
B. Albinism
C. Eye colour
D. Myopia
EXPLANATION
The explanation for this question will be added soon.

QUESTION: When the light from two lamps falls on a screen, no interference pattern can be obtained. Why is this
A. The lamps are not point sources
B. The lamps emit light of different amplitudes
C. The light from the lamps is not coherent
D. The light from the lamps is white.
EXPLANATION
Because they are not coherent, the conditions for interference of light are: light source should be coherent and light waves should have same wavelength, hence the answer will be C

QUESTION: The vaive between left ventricle is calle
A. Semi lunar valve
B. Blcuspid valve
C. Tricuspid valve
D. Pulmonary valve
EXPLANATION
The term semilunar refers to the aortic valve and the pulmonary valve, tricuspid is the valve between the right atrium and ventricular and bicuspid between left atrium and ventricular, hence the answer will be A

QUESTION: Which of the following misnamed?
A. Aniline
B. Methyl naphthalene
C. Carboxyl benzene
D. Benzene sulphonic acid
EXPLANATION
When a carboxyl group is added to a Benzene ring, it is called Benzoic acid.Thus Option C is the right answer.

QUESTION: The smaller the value of pKb:
A. The weaker the base
B. The stronger the base
C. The stronger the acid
D. None of the above
EXPLANATION
Pkb is a negative base-10 logarithm of the base dissociation constant kb of a solution, it is used to determine the strength of a base/alkaline solution,the smaller the value of pkb the stronger the base, therefore the answer is B.

QUESTION: Why is the boiling point of n-Pentane about 28‘C higher than that of its 2,2-Dimethylpropane isomer?
A. The area of contact between 2,2-Dimethylpropane is small which results in weak forces of attraction.
B. 2,2-dimehlprpane molecules repel each other
C. N-pentane molecules cannot come into closer contact with each other
D. Shapes of molecules have not effect on boiling point
EXPLANATION
The more branched an isomer is, the smaller the area of contact and thus weaker intermolecular forces of attractions.Therefore the answer is A.

QUESTION: Which one of the following will not undergo dehydrogenation?
A. COCH3
B. (CH 3)2 CHOH
C. (CH3)3COH
D. CH3CH2OH
EXPLANATION
To undergo dehydrogenation, the compound must have OH group. Only compound in option A is not an alcohol thus, it is the correct answer.

QUESTION: Which one is a polymer substance?
A. Glass
B. Iron
C. Plastic
D. copper
EXPLANATION
A polymer is a substance made of many repeating units called monomers. Plastics are formed by many identical repeating monomers thus are polymers.

QUESTION: (fix this) The heat of combustion of hydrocarbon is very useful source of heat and power, Considering the combustion reaction given below. CH4(g) +O2(g) →CO2(o) + 2H2O △H for the reaction is.
A. △H = 213 kcal/mole
B. △H= 231 kcal/mole
C. △H= 426 kcal/mole
D. △H= 312 kcal/mole
EXPLANATION
Enthalpy of combustion of methane is -890KJ/mol. 1KJ = 0.239Kcal 890KJ= 212.715Kcal

QUESTION: Rain water becomes acidic, when the pH-value of rain water becomes.
A. Greater than 6
B. Greater than 6.5
C. Less than 5.6
D. Less than 5
EXPLANATION
Normal clean rain has a pH value between 5.0 - 5.5, which is slightly acidic, however when rain combines with nitrogen oxides or SO2, it becomes more acidic has the pH drops below 5.0 therefore the answer is D

QUESTION: Drinking water should be odorless, tasteless and livefrom turbidity and its pH should range between:
A. 6.0 to 7.0
B. 7.0 to 8.5
C. 4.5 to 6.0
D. 8.5 to 9.0
EXPLANATION
It is recommended that the pH of drinking water should be between 6.5-8.5 on a scale that ranges from 0 - 14, hence the answer will be B

QUESTION: (Fix this) How many molecules are present in 0.20 g of Hydrogen gas? select correct option
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
EXPLANATION
One gram of hydrogen contains one mole of hydrogen as its atomic weight is 1, one mole is 6.02x1023atoms. Since hydrogen is diatomic the amount of molecules would be 3.01x1023, therefore the answer would be 3.01x10^23

QUESTION: (fix this) In the nuclear reaction
A. A neutron
B. A proton
C. An electron
D. An alpha particle
EXPLANATION
The explanation for this question will be added soon.

QUESTION: A single molecule of haemoglobin is composed of:
A. Three polypeptide chains
B. Four polypeptide chains
C. Five polypeptide chains
D. Six polypeptide chains
EXPLANATION
Haemoglobin is a quaternary structure therefore its composed of four polypeptide chains, 2 alpha globins and 2 beta globins therefore the answer will be B

QUESTION: Which of following functional groups are deactivating and not ortho, para directing?
A. –R
B. –COR
C. –NH2
D. NR2
EXPLANATION
Ortho and para directing grps release electrons to the benzene ring increasing the chemical reactivity of the benzene ring towards electrophiles meanwhile meta directing grps withdraw the electrons from the benzene ring towards themselves decreasing their availability towards electrophiles. Therefore the answer will be B

QUESTION: In which of the following pairs are both substances normally crystalline?
A. Copper and diamond
B. Copper and glass
C. Copper and rubber
D. Diamond and glass
EXPLANATION
Diamond is a crystal that is transparent to opaque and generally isotropic, native copper is a polycrystal therefore the answer will be A

QUESTION: Which one of the following is strongest ecid?
A. CH3COOH
B. CH3 CH2 COOH
C. C6H5CG2COOH
D. FCH2COOH
EXPLANATION
D,as it contains a halogen which have strong electron withdrawing effects

QUESTION: To distinguish among primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols which of the following tests is used?
A. Benedicts reagen
B. Tollen‘sreagent
C. Lucas test
D. None of the above
EXPLANATION
The lucas test is used to differentiate between primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols,an oily layer of alkyl halides separates out in these reactions. With the oily layer being formed immediately in tertiary alcohols, in 5 - 10mins in secondary and only on heating in primary. Therefore the answer will be C

QUESTION: Which one of the following; compounds participates in hydrogen bonding?
A. CH3
B. CH3 OCH3
C. CH3NH3
D. C6 H5 OCH3
EXPLANATION
Hydrogen bonding is possible when a hydrogen atom is bonded to another electronegative atom like O,F,N etc therefore the answer will be C

QUESTION: (fix this) Which of the following structure has a bond formed by an overla of SP2 hybrid orbital with that of SP hybrid orbital?
A. HC = CH
B. H2C = CH2
C. H2C = C= CH2
D. CH2 = CHCH3
EXPLANATION
The explanation for this question will be added soon.

QUESTION: The bond angle between H - C – C bond in ethane is:
A. 109.5
B. 120
C. 90
D. 107.5
EXPLANATION
The explanation for this question will be added soon.

QUESTION: What will be the product when PCT5 reacts with acetic acid?
A. CH3CI
B. CH3COCI
C. CH3COCI2
D. CH3CH2COCI
EXPLANATION
When pcl5 reacts with acetic acid CH3COOH,an acyl chloride acetyl chloride is formedCH3COOH + PCl5 CH3COCl +POCl3 +HCl

QUESTION: Which type of isomerism is being exhibited by FCH = CHF?
A. Chain isomerism
B. Structural isomerism
C. Structural isomerism
D. Position isomerism
EXPLANATION
Geometric isomers possess the same structural formula containing a double bond and differ only in respect of the arrangements about the double bond, hence the answer will be C

QUESTION: Which is the correct product formed when monohydric alcohol reacts with sodium metal?
A. Alkene
B. Sodum alkoxide
C. Alkane
D. Ether
EXPLANATION
When alcohols react with metals a salt is formed,the reaction when a monohydric alcohol reacts with sodium metal results in the production of sodium alkoxide and hydrogen gas, hence the answer will be B

QUESTION: (fix this) Coal, Natural gas and petroleum are generally called:
A. Node
B. Anti-node
C. Crest
D. Trough
EXPLANATION
Coal, natural gas and petroleum are all generally called fossil fuels

QUESTION: in vibrating cord the point where the particles are stationary is called:
A. node
B. anti-node
C. crest
D. trough
EXPLANATION
Nodes are points of zero amplitude, therefore the answer will be A

QUESTION: benzene reacts with acetyl chloride in the presence of lewis acid forming:
A. Chlorobazcre
B. Acotophenone
C. Benzolc acid
D. benzophenone
EXPLANATION
The reaction between benzene and acetyl chloride in the presence of lewis acid results in the formation of an aryl ketone , methyl phenyl ketone also known as acetophenone, hemce the answer will be B

QUESTION: (fix this) When 2-Bromo-2-methyl propane undergoes unimolecular elimination reaction, the product obtained will be:
A. 2-Methyl propane:
B. 2-Methyl propane:
C. 2-Methyl-1 propanol
D. 2-pentanol
EXPLANATION
The explanation for this question will be added soon.

QUESTION: (fix this) When lead, 81Pb214, emits a ß- particle, the resultant nutleus will be:
A. 83Bi214
B. 84Po214
C. 82Pb213
D. 41TI214
EXPLANATION
In Beta- particle emission the mass number remains constant while the atomic number +1

QUESTION: (fix this) Vinylaeetate monomer is prepared lby the reaction of acetaldehyde and acetic-anhydride. The catalyt employed is:
A. FcCI3
B. AL2O3
C. V2O5
D. Cr2O3
EXPLANATION
The explanation for this question will be added soon.

QUESTION: Thermal processing of industrial waste material aims at:
A. Burning of waste material in pits
B. Converting the solid waste into useful products by thermal treatment
C. Energy recovery from organic matter prior to its final disposal
D. Size reduction and compaction by thermal process
EXPLANATION
The primary function of thermal treatment is to convert the waste to a stable and usable end product, therefore the answer will be B

QUESTION: Which one is not a nitrogenous fertillzer?
A. Ammonium nitrate
B. Triple phosphate
C. Urea
D. Nitro phosphate
EXPLANATION
Triple phosphate is a phosphate fertilizer

QUESTION: In chlorophyII-b, the porphyrine ring is attached to the:
A. Methyl group
B. Carboxyl group
C. Aldehyde group
D. Hydroxyle group
EXPLANATION
Attached to the porphyrin ring is the phytol chain made up of ester linkages hence the answer will be, B

QUESTION: Which of the following titrants would most likely be used as ths‘ own indicator in acid medium?
A. K2Cr2O3
B. Iodine
C. KMnO4
D. H2O2
EXPLANATION
KMnO4 acts as an oxidising agent in acidic mediums only

QUESTION: The atomic number of scandium is 21. What is its ground state electronic configuration?
A. 1s22N22p63N23p63d3
B. 1s22N22p63N23p63d34s1
C. 1s22N22p63N23p63d34s2
D. 1s22N22p63N23p63d34p1
EXPLANATION
The explanation for this question will be added soon.

QUESTION: The centre of porphrine ring of haemoglobin is occupied by:
A. Magnesium
B. Sodium
C. Iron
D. Potassium
EXPLANATION
The haem grp is a metal complex with iron as the central metal atom

QUESTION: (Fix this) 40.0 dm3 of an ideal gas at 250C and 750 mm Hg is expanded to 50.0 dm3. The pressure of the gas changed to 765 mm Hg. What is the temperature of the gas?
A. (2912)(750)(50)/(40)(765)
B. (298)(750)(40)/(50)(765)
EXPLANATION
PV=nRT

QUESTION: (Fix this) Premature death of paints is caused by the deficiency of:
A. Magnesium
B. Iron
C. Phosphorus
D. Potassium
EXPLANATION
The explanation for this question will be added soon.

QUESTION: Which electronic sub-shell do the Lanthanicies have incompletely filled?
A. 3f
B. 4f
C. 5f
D. 6f
EXPLANATION
Their 4f subshell is incompletely filled, lanthanides start from lanthanum atomic no. 57 to lutecium atomic no. 71

QUESTION: (Fix this) A write has a resilience it‘. If its length is doubled and radius is reduced to half then its resistance will become:
A. 2R
B. 4R
C. 8R
D. 16R
EXPLANATION
The explanation for this question will be added soon.

QUESTION: How many different values can m, assume in the electron sub-shell designated by quantum number n=5, 1=4?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 9
EXPLANATION
The explanation for this question will be added soon.

QUESTION: Which of the following is Hypochlorous acid?
A. HCIO
B. HCIO2
C. HCIO3
D. HCIO4
EXPLANATION
HCIO is the chemical formula for hypochlorous acid

QUESTION: If 20.0 cm3 of 0.5 M solution is dituted to 1.0 dm3. What will be its new concentration?
A. 0.00.1 M
B. 0.01 M
C. 1.0 M
D. 10.0 M
EXPLANATION
The explanation for this question will be added soon.

QUESTION: Which one of the following oxides exhibit amphoteric properties?
A. K2O
B. MgO
C. ZnO
D. CaO
EXPLANATION
Zinc oxide is amphoteric because it reacts with both acids and bases to form salts,hance the answer will be C

QUESTION: Which one of the following salts will produce an alkaline solution when dissolved in water?
A. NH1CI
B. NuNO3
C. Na2CO3
D. Nu2SO4
EXPLANATION
Na2SO3 will form an alkaline solution because its formed by the reaction of a strong base NaOH and a weak acid H2CO3. Therefore the answer will be C

QUESTION: A neutral atom A has the electronic configuration: 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s1. It will gain or lose electron/s to form most probably an lon of valence:
A. -2
B. -1
C. +2
D. +1
EXPLANATION
The element with atomic number 19 is potassium (K) which is a grp 1 metal hence loses one electron to form the ion valence of K+1, therefore the answer will be D

QUESTION: Which statement correctly describes a nucleon?
A. A neutron or a proton
B. A neutron, proton or an electron
C. Any atomic nucleus
D. A radioactive atomic nucleus
EXPLANATION
A nucleon is either a proton or neutron, hence the answer will be A

QUESTION: Ozone gas is:
A. Greenish, tasteless and light
B. Greenish blue, bitter in taste
C. Blue. Poisonous and explosive
D. Purple yellow, non poisonous, non explosive
EXPLANATION
Ozone gas is pale blue,it is a toxic substance and can lead to explosive destruction when concentrated and a trigger is applied, therefore the answer will be C

QUESTION: Which one of the following is a lewis acid?
A. (CH3)3N
B. PH3
C. BF3
D. O2
EXPLANATION
BF3 acts as a lewis acid when it accepts the lone pair of electrons that NH3 donates ,hence the correct answer will be C

QUESTION: According to molecular orbital theory which one of the following will indicate tow unpaired electrons?
A. N2
B. O2
C. F2
D. Hc 2+2
EXPLANATION
O2 has two unpaired electrons in its pi orbital, hence the correct answer will be B

QUESTION: Which one of the following compounds will show covalent bonding?
A. CaF2
B. MgO
C. KCI
D. Sill 1
EXPLANATION
Covalent bond is a chemical bond that involves the sharing of electrons,options A, B and C all show ionic bonds, therefore the correct answer will be D

QUESTION: (Fix this) which one of the following has a covalent bonding by the overlap of sp hybralized orbital with p or bitaly
A. BF1
B. H2O
C. HeCI1
D. NH3
EXPLANATION
The explanation for this question will be added soon.

QUESTION: (Fix this) Four gas molecules have the speed 8.0 ms-1, 6.0 ms-1, 6.0 ms-1 and √B ms-1 What is their root-mean-square speed?
A. 8.0 ms-1
B. 6.0 ms-1
C. 5.0 ms-1
D. 7.0 ms-1
EXPLANATION
The root mean square speed is calculated via Vrms = √ v12+v22+v32+v42/ number of speed

QUESTION: Considering the standard reduction chart, the strong reducing agent value is:
A. Small negative values
B. Large negative values
C. Small positive values
D.  Large positive values
EXPLANATION
The reducing agent is stronger when it has a more negative reduction potential, therefore the answer will be B

QUESTION: You are required to test the presence of NH4+ Ion in water. Which of the following reagent will solve your problem?
A. Imethylglyoxime
B. Tollen‘s reagent
C. Nessler‘s reagent
D. Magneson reagen
EXPLANATION
Nessler’s reagent can be used to detect the presence of NH4+ ions in water as brown ppt is formed, therefore the correct answer will be C

QUESTION: The variable oxidation states of transition elements is attubuted to the involvement of s as well as:
A. Unpaired d Electrons
B. Unpaired p electrons
C. Unpaired f electrons
D. Paired up d electrons
EXPLANATION
Unpaired d electrons as the d subshell splits and excitation occurs

QUESTION: A sample of carbon-12 has a mass of 3.0 g. which expression gives the number of atoms in the sample? (NA is the symbol Ion the Avogadro costant)
A. 0.0030NA
B. 0.25 NA
C. 3.0 NA
D. 4.0 N A
EXPLANATION
The explanation for this question will be added soon.

QUESTION: In contact process for the manufacture of sulphuric acid, sulphur trioxide is dissolved in sulphuric acid in form oleum. Oleum moleculr formula is:
A. H2S2O3
B. H2S2O5
C. H2S2O6
D. H2S2O7
EXPLANATION
The molecular formular for oleum is H2S207, therefore D

QUESTION: (Fix this) Ethylene diamine tetraacette ion (EDT(A) is a opolydentate ligand it bonds to central metal atom through:
A. Two of its atoms
B. Three of its atoms
C. Four of its aloms
D. Six of its atoms
EXPLANATION
The explanation for this question will be added soon.

QUESTION: (Fix this) Half ell reaction standard reduction potential, Eo  Fc2+ 2c- → Fe –0.41 Cu2+ 2c- → Fe –0.41 Ni2+ 2c- → Fe –0.41 Zn2+ 2c- → Fe –0.41 Referring to the table above which metal could be used to prevent iron from crosion?
A. Cu only
B. Zn only
C. Cu & Ni only
D. Ni and Zn only
EXPLANATION
The explanation for this question will be added soon.

QUESTION: Lipids are naturally occurring substances which are chemically:
A. Proteins
B. Amino acids
C. Carbohydrates
D. Esters
EXPLANATION
Lipids are made up of fatty acids and glycerols which are joined together via ester bonds Hence the answer is D

QUESTION: (fix this) A salt AB tonizes as AB = A+ > B-. The solubility product for the salt AB is 4.0 x 10-4. The molar solubility of the salt is:
A. 4.0 x 10 -4 M
B. 2.0 x 10-2 M
C. 8.0 x 10-4 M
D. 2.0 x 10-4 M
EXPLANATION
The explanation for this question will be added soon.

QUESTION: The primers used in polymerase chain reaction has a sequence of bases
A. 8
B. 12
C. 16
D. 20
EXPLANATION
Primers are single strands of DNA or RNA sequence that are around 20 to 30 bases in length, therefore the answer will be D

QUESTION: (fix this) Which one is least reactive towards a reaction with Na?
A. CHO3H
B. CH 3 – CH
C. CH3 – O- CH 3
D. CH3 - COOH
EXPLANATION
The explanation for this question will be added soon.

QUESTION: The element which has the smallest atomic radius is
A. Fe
B. Co
C. Ni
D. Cu
EXPLANATION
Atomic radius decreases across a period since all these elements belong to the same period of the d-block, copper is the last element in the period amongst these elements hence it has the smallest atomic radius

QUESTION: Which one of the following has negative temperature coefficient?
A. Copper
B. Thermistor
C. Soft iron
D. platinum
EXPLANATION
NTC, negative thermistors are resistors with a negative temperature coefficient which means the resistance decreases with increasing temperature, hence the answer will be B

QUESTION: pulvinus tissues are present at
A. Leaf-tip
B. Leaf-margin
C. Leaf-base
D. Middle-vein
EXPLANATION
Pulvini may be present at the base or apex of the petiole, they consist of a core of vascular tissue within a flexible, bulky cylinder of thin walled parenchyma cells, therefore the correct answer will be C

QUESTION: Which isomers have difference in both their physical and chemical properties?
A. Chain isomers
B. Position isomers
C. Functional group isomers
D. Both (A) and (B
EXPLANATION
Chain and position isomers have almost similar chemical properties but different physical, whereas functional grp isomers have different chemical and physical properties

QUESTION: Which of the following tests can be used to distinguish between aidehyces and ketone
A. Bacyer‘s test
B. Fehling‘s test
C.  Silver mirror tes
D. Both (B) and (c)
EXPLANATION
Both fehling’s test and silver mirror test also known as tollens’ test is used to distinguish between aldehydes and ketones, the correct answer will be D

QUESTION: One way of expressing the equation of state for an ideal gas is by the equation pV = NkT. What do N‘ and K‘ represent respectively
A. Avogadro constant; Boltzmnn constant
B. Avogadro constant; Molar gas constant
C. Total number of molecules; Boltzmann constant
D. Total number of molecules; Avogadro constant
EXPLANATION
K represents the boltzmann constant 8.31, whereas N is the number of molecules of gas

QUESTION: On the ground, the gravitational force on a satellite is W. What is the gravitational force on the satellite when at a height R/50, where R is the radius of the earth?
A. 1.04W
B. 1.02W
C. 0.50W
D. 0.96W
EXPLANATION
F=GMm/R2 On ground Force= GMm/R2 In orbit Force=GMm/(R+R/50)2 GMm/(51R/50)2 GMm/(2601R2/2500) = GMm x 2500/2601R2 Equating both these equations: GMm x 2500/2601R2 = GMm/R2 All the constants will be cancelled and we will be left with; 2500/2601 = 0.96W

QUESTION: If a wave can be polarized, it must be:
A. An electromagnetic wave
B. A stationary wave
C. Transverse wave
D. A longitudinal wave
EXPLANATION
Transverse waves which include all electromagnetic waves such as light, radio waves, and x-rays can be polarized, hence the answer will be C.

QUESTION: In the nuclear reaction shown below what is the value of coefficient? 92U235+0n1…. 56Kr89+γon1 + 200MeV
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
EXPLANATION
In the fission reaction uranium absorbs a neutron and forms a barium and krypton nucleus which are extremely unstable and they instamtaneously release three neutrons between themselves becoming barium144 and krypton89, therefore the answer is D.

QUESTION: The vectors A and B are such that |A + B| = |A – B|, then the angle between the two vectors is:
A. 00
B. 600
C. 900
D. 1800
EXPLANATION
Explanation is given in picture

QUESTION: A zirconium nucleus,is a ß-emitter. The product nucleus is also a ß-emitter. What is the final resulting nucleus of these two decays?
A. 100Sr38
B. 100Mo42
C. 98Zr40
D. 100Zr40
EXPLANATION
In beta decay, mass number reamins the same but proton number increases by 1. Since there are 2 beta decays, proton number will be increased by 2. Zirconium has 40 protons so proton number will increases from 40 t0 42. Thus option B is correct.

QUESTION: A raring car accelerates uniformly through three gear changes with the following average speeds:  20 ms-1 for 2.0s;40ms-1 for 2.0 s and 60 ms-1 for 6.0s What is the ovrall average speed of the cat
A. 12 ms1
B. 13.3 ms-1
C. 40 ms-1
D. 48 ms1
EXPLANATION
To find the overall average speed we first must find the distance traveled in each gear change, distance=speedxtime (20x2), (40x2), (60x6) Average speed = total distance traveled/time =40+80+360/10 =48 therefore the answer is D

QUESTION: Which of the following lists contains scalar quantities only?
A. Mass, acceleration, temperature, kinetic energy
B. Mass, volume, electrical potential, kinetic energy
C. Acceleration, temperature, volume, electric charge
D. Momentum, electric intensity, density, magnetic flux.
EXPLANATION
A scalar quantity is one that contains only mass but no direction, therefore the answer is B

QUESTION: A generator produces 100 kW of power at a potential difference of 10KV. The power is transmitted through cables of total resistance 5Q. How much power is dissipated in the cables?
A. 50 W
B. 750 W
C. 500 W
D. 1000 W
EXPLANATION
VxI =P Current = 100000W/10000V, =10A Power loss = I^2 x R^2 Power loss = (10A)^2 x 5ohm, =500W

QUESTION: (fix this) Read the statement and choose the correct option
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
EXPLANATION
The explanation for this question will be added soon.

QUESTION: Ultraviolet rays differ from the X-rays in that ultraviolet rays
A. Cannot be diffracted
B. Cannot be polarized
C. Have a low frequency
D.  Do not affect a photographic plate
EXPLANATION
Ultraviolet rays do affect photographic plates

QUESTION: (fix this) If a body of mass m‘ is released in a vacuum just above the sun face of a planet of mass M‘ and
A. GMm/R
EXPLANATION
The explanation for this question will be added soon.

QUESTION: The first law of thermodynamics is a statement which implies that:
A. No heat enters or leaves the system
B. The temperature remains constant
C. All work is mechanical
D. Energy is conserved
EXPLANATION
The first law of thermodynamics states that energy can neither be created nor destroyed, it is converted from one form to another, therefore the answer will be D

QUESTION: The function of a main transformer is to convert:
A. one direct voltage to another direct voltage of different magnitude.
B. one alternating voltage to another alternating voltage of different magnitude.
C. a high value alternating voltage to low value direct voltage.
D. A high value alternating current to low value direct voltage
EXPLANATION
A transformer converts a high voltage low current alternating current to a low voltage high current one, and vice versa therefore the answer will be B

QUESTION: When monochromatic light of wavelength 5.0X 10-7 m is incident normally on a plane diffraction grating, the second order diffraction lines are formed at angles of 300 to the normal to the grating. What is the number of lines per millimeter of the grating?
A. 250
B. 500
C. 1000
D. 4000
EXPLANATION
Explanation is given in image

QUESTION: (fix this) During the experiment one measured the mass of mosquito and found it 1.20x 10-5 kg. the number of significant figures in this case is:
A. test
B. test 2
EXPLANATION
Its up to 3 significant figures

QUESTION: If a hole is bored through the center of the earth and a pebble is dropped in ti, then it will:
A. Stop at the center of the earth
B. Drop to the other side
C. Lxecute SHM
D. None of the above.
EXPLANATION
The pebble would fall down to the other side and in a ideal situation would oscillate between the two ends in simple harmonic motion, therefore the answer would be C

QUESTION: the minimum frequency of incident light required to emit photoelectrons from the metal surface is called:
A. critical frequency
B. threshold frequency
C. work function
D. none of he above
EXPLANATION
The minimum amount of energy required to induce photoemission of electrons from a metal surface is know as work function, therefore the answer is C

QUESTION: If two cars are moving with velocity 10 m/s and 5m/s in opposite direction to each other, then their relative velocity with respect to one another will be:
A. 5m/s
B. 10m/s
C. -5m/s
D. 15m/s
EXPLANATION
When two bodies move in opposite directions, then the relative velocity = sum of velocities, therefore 10 + 5 = 15

QUESTION: When released from a height a ball falls 5m in 1s. in 4s after release it will fall.
A. 40m
B. 80m
C. 20m
D. 100m
EXPLANATION
Since s= ut +1/2 at2 u=0 a=g s = 1/2 (10) (16) s = 80mHence the answer will be B

QUESTION: I saw him yesterday she said. Select the correct indirect speech:
A. She told that she had seen him yesterday.
B. She said that she had seen him the day before
C. She told that she could see him the previous day.
D. She said that she would see him the day before.
EXPLANATION
The explanation for this question will be added soon.

QUESTION: If the momentum of a body decreases by 20% the percentage decrease in K.E will be:
A. 44%
B. 36%
C. 28%
D. 20%
EXPLANATION
Momentum p = mv If momentum is decreased by 20% the resulting new value is 80% of the original p-p’ P - 0.2p = mv - m0.2v P - 0.2p = (m) (v) (0.8) K.e = 1/2mv2 =½ (m)(0.64v2) =36% Hence the answer will be B

QUESTION: The antimatter of election is:
A. Photon
B. Roton
C. Positron
D. Antineutrino
EXPLANATION
Antimatter is a type of matter made up of anti particles, positron is the antiparticle for electrons

QUESTION: An organ pipe is open at both ends at its fundamental frequency. Neglecting any end effects, what wavelength is formed by this pipe in this mode of vibration, if the pipe is two meter long?
A. 2m
B. 4m
C. 6m
D. 8m
EXPLANATION
At its fundamental frequency, wavelength = 2 x pipe length 2 x 2 = 4m

QUESTION: A body in equilibrium must not have:
A. Kinetic energy
B. Velocity
C. Momentum
D. Acceleration
EXPLANATION
A body at equilibrium must have an acceleration of 0m/s2

QUESTION: The differences in energy between dchllerent states of bond vibrations in a molecule correspond to which electromagnetic region?
A. Microwave
B. Inltared
C. Visible
D. X-rays
EXPLANATION
The difference in energy between two two vibrational states is equal to the energy associated with the wavelength of radiation that was absorbed, it lies in the infrared region, therefore the answer is B

QUESTION: Three equivalcnt resistors connected in parallel have equivalent resistance R/3. When they are connected in series then the equivalent resistance is:
A. 3R
B. R/3
C. R
D. 2R
EXPLANATION
Reistance is added in series so it will be 3R

QUESTION: Ohm‘s law is valid only for
A. Thermistor
B. Bulb lilament
C. Metals
D. Semiconductors
EXPLANATION
Ohms law is valid for metallic conductors, hence the answr will be C

QUESTION: (Fix this) Which of the given formulae would be used to calculate the wave length of an electron? Given its velocity(v), its mass (m) and constant h:
A. Test
B. Test 2
C. Test 3
D. Test 4
EXPLANATION
De broglies’ wave equation is used to calculate the wavelength =hmv

QUESTION: (Fix this) The energy stored in a charged capacltor is given by:
A. Test
EXPLANATION
Since E = 1/2QV E=1/2CV2 OR E=Q2/2C

QUESTION: The potential difference between a pair of similar and parallel conducting plates is known. What additional information is needed in order to find the electric field strength between the plates?
A. Separation of the plates.
B. Separation and area of the plates.
C. Permittivity of the medium; separation of the plates.
D. Permittivity of the medium; separation and area of the plates.
EXPLANATION
The strength of an electric field is calculated via E = V/d, where V is the potential difference and d is the distance between the plates, hence the answer will be A

QUESTION: A capacitor which has a capacitance of 1 farad will:
A. Be fully charged in 1 second by a current of 1 ampere
B. Store 1 coulomb of charge at a potential difference of 1 volt.
C. Gain 1 joule of energy when 1 coulomb of charge is stored on it.
D. Discharge in 1 second when connected aoross a resistor of resistance 1 ohm
EXPLANATION
The explanation for this question will be added soon.

QUESTION: The internal energy of a fixed cass of an ideal gas depends on:
A. Pressure, but not volume or temperature.
B. Temperature, but not pressure or volume
C. Volume, but not pressure or temperature.
D. Pressure and temperature, but not volume.
EXPLANATION
In an ideal gas the inter-molecular collisions are assumed to be absent and the collisions are perfectly elastic, thus, the gas only possesses kinetic energy and hence the internal energy of the ideal gas only depends on temperature,hence the answer will be B

QUESTION: A spring obeying Book‘s law has an unstretched length of 50 mm and a spring contant of 400 Nm-01. What is the tension in the spring when its overall length is 70mm?
A. 8.0N
B. 28N
C. 160N
D. 400N
EXPLANATION
According to hook’s law, the spring force is directly proportional to the displacement of the spring from its equilibrium F = kx extension , x = 70-50 , =20mm, =0.02m Tension, F = kx =400(0.2), =0.8NHence the answer will be A

QUESTION: Which thermodynamic temperature is equivalent to 501.850C?
A. 775.00 K
B. 774.85 K
C. 228.85 K
D. 228.70 K
EXPLANATION
To convert a temperature from degrees to celsius we add 273.15 to the value in celsius, 501.85 + 273.15 = 775K The closest answer therefore is B

QUESTION: An object travels at constant speed around a circle of radius 1.0 m in 1.0 s. what is the magnitude of its acceleration?
A. Zero
B. 1.0 ms-2
C. 2n ms1
D. 4n2 ms-2
EXPLANATION
The formula for acceleration of an object is a = w2r = s2/r w = 2 pi as its the circumference , r =1 A = 4pi2ms-2

QUESTION: (Fix this) An alternating current 1/A‘ varies with time t/s‘ according to the equation I = s sin (100n t). What is the meaq power developed by the current in a resistive load of resistance 100?
A. 125W
B. 160W
C. 250W
D. 500W
EXPLANATION
The explanation for this question will be added soon.

QUESTION: The rate of change of momentum of a body falling freely under gravity is equal to its:
A. Impulse
B. Kinetic energy
C. Power
D. weight
EXPLANATION
Weight as momentum is given by p = mv f(t) = mv F = m(v/t) F = ma Since the acceleration is = gravity W = mg Hence the answer will be D

QUESTION: Radioactive activity is affected by:
A. Temperature
B. Pressure
C. Humidity level
D. None of the above
EXPLANATION
Radioactivity is a spontaneous emission and does not depend on nor affected by external conditions such as temperature, air pressure etc. hence the correct answer will be D

QUESTION: The change in enthalpy at constant pressure, △H is equal to:
A. △H = q + P△V
B. △H = △E- P△V
C. △H = △E + P△V
D. △H = q - P△V
EXPLANATION
The explanation for this question will be added soon.

QUESTION: (Fix this) An organ pipe of length T has one end closed but the other end open. What is the wavelength of the fundamental node emitted?
A. Slightly smaller than 41.
B. Slightly larger than 41
C.  Roughly equal to 3:/2.
D. Slightly larger than 21.
EXPLANATION
Fundamental wavelength 4xT

QUESTION: (Fix this) Which statement is correct while recbarging the automobile battery?
A. Pb is converted to PbO2.
B. PbSO4 is converted to Ph.
C. Pb is converted to PbSO4
D. None of the above
EXPLANATION
The explanation for this question will be added soon.

QUESTION: (Fix this) A vertical steel wire X of circular cross-section is used to suspend a load. A second wire Y, made of the same material but having twice the length and twice the diameter is used to suspend an equal load. What is the value of the ratio
A. 1/1
B. 1
C. 2
D. 4
EXPLANATION
The explanation for this question will be added soon.

QUESTION: Drops X and Y, of the same oil, remained stationary in air in the same electric field. After the field was switched off, X fell more quickly than Y. which deduction can be made?
A. X had a greater charge than Y
B. Y ha a greater chrge than X
C. Parallel but opposite
D. Parallel, opposite and folded spirally.
EXPLANATION
The drag force on the drops is proportional to the square of droplets radii but the weight of the droplets is proportional to its cube, therefore the larger the droplet the heavier it is and will fall faster after the field is removed, in order to keep the droplet in equilibrium when the field is applied, X must have a larger charge than Y, hence the answer will be A

QUESTION: Which of the following furnaces is used for the production of wrought iron?
A. Open hearth furnace
B. Reverberatory furnace
C. Bessemer converter
D. Blast furnace
EXPLANATION
A puddling furnace is used which is a type of an open hearth furnace, it is constructed to pull hot air over the iron without the fuel coming in direct contact with the iron. Therefore the correct answer will be A

QUESTION: A mass accelerates uniformly when the resultant force acting on it:
A. Is zero.
B. Is constant but not zero.
C. Increases uniformly with respect to time
D. Is proportional to the displacement of the mass from a fixed point.
EXPLANATION
A mass accelerates uniformly when the resultant force acting on it is constant but not zero, if the mass accelerates uniformly, then the net force acting upon the object is inversely proportional to the mass, hence the answer will be B

QUESTION: Which of the following lists contains three regions of the electromagnetic spectrum in order of in ceasing frequency?
A. Gamma rays, ultraviolet rays, radio waves
B. Gamma rays, visible radiation, ultraviolet rays.
C. Microwaves, ultraviolet rayst, X-rays
D. Radio waves, visible radiation, infrared radiation
EXPLANATION
The electromagnetic spectrum is as such as wavelength decreases frequency increases, therefore the correct answer would be C ,as the question requires in order of increasing frequencies and gamma has the highest frequency, whereas in option D infrared has a higher frequency than ultra violet.

QUESTION: A source contains initially N0 nuclei of a radioactive nuclide. How many of these nuclei have decayed after a time interval of three half-lives?
A. No/8
B. 2No/3
C. No/3
D. 7No/8
EXPLANATION
One half like is ½ of the original sample so after 3 half lifes ⅛ of the sample will be left which means ⅞ has decayed, therefore the answer will be D

QUESTION: Two monochromatic radiations X and Y are incident normally on a diffraction grating. The second order intensity maximum for X coincides with the third order intensity maximum for Y. what is the ratio wavelength of x/ wavelength of y?
A. 1/2
B. 2/3
C. 3/2
D. 2/1
EXPLANATION
The equation for diffraction grating is dsin=mλ For the second order of X, dsin=2λ, and for the third order od Y dsin=3λ, since they coincide 2λ=3λ λ/λ=3/2, hence the correct answer will be C

QUESTION: A sound wave of frequency 400 Hz is travelling in a gas at a speed of 320 ms-1. What is the phase difference between two points 0.2 m apart in the direction of the travel?
A. n/1 rad
EXPLANATION
To calculate wavelength of a wave we use λ =v/f, = 320/400 K = 2π/λ ,=2π /320 x400 K=400π /160, =5π /2 Kx△ X= △φ , 5π /2 X 0.2= △φ  △φ =π /2 Hence the answer will be B

QUESTION: Which of the following is the unit of pressure?
A. Kg m s-1
B. Kg m-1 s-2
C. Kg m2 s-2
D. Kg m-2 s-1
EXPLANATION
B, as pressure = force/area =ma/m2, =kg(ms-2)/m2,=kgm-1s-2

QUESTION: (Fix this) Satellites revolve around the earth in a circular orbit. What is the relationship between the raider f their orbits and their speeds?
A. V ∞ r2
B.  V ∞ r
C. V1 ∞ 1/r
D. V ∞ 1/r2
EXPLANATION
V = √GM/R, so V2 ∞ 1/r

QUESTION: Of the following properties of a wave, the one that is independent of the others is its:
A. Amplitude
B. Wavelength
C. Speed
D. Frequency
EXPLANATION
Amplitude of a wave is independent whereas speed wavelength and frequency are all depend on each other via the formulaSpeed = wavelength x frequency, hence the answer will be A

QUESTION: (fix this) The force F‘ on a charged partied q‘ moving with velocity ;v‘ parallel to magnetic held B‘ is given by:
A. F u qvB
B. F u qE
C. F u O
D. D
EXPLANATION
The magnetic force on a moving charge is given by F = qv x B, therefore the answer will be

QUESTION: Have you got a computer? She said. Select the correct indirect speech:
A. She wanted to find whether I have a computer
B. She wanted to know whether I had a computer.
C. She wanted to know if I could use computer.
D. She was interested to know about my computer.
EXPLANATION
The explanation for this question will be added soon.

QUESTION: (fix this) Add some milk and sugar ...... the tea.
A. To
B. At
C. In
D. On
EXPLANATION
The explanation for this question will be added soon.

QUESTION: ALLUSION‘ means:
A. An idea haunting one‘s mind
B. A casual or indirect reference
C. Have a low frequency
D. Do not affect a photographic plate
EXPLANATION
Allusion is an indirect or passing reference, therefore the answer will be B

QUESTION: GET HOLD OF ONESELF Implies:
A. To start running
B. To catch a thief
C. To become calm
D. To feel exhausted
EXPLANATION
Get a hold of oneself means to get control of ones’ thoughts and emotions and stop acting a foolish or uncontrolled way, hence the answer will be C

QUESTION: Select the correct sentence:
A. My feet seemed hardly to touch the earth.
B. My feet hardly seamed to touch the earth.
C. Hardly my feet seemed to touch the earth.
D. My feet seemed to touch the earth hardly.
EXPLANATION
The explanation for this question will be added soon.

QUESTION: in a composition writing exercise, PRECISE‘ means:
A. A synopsis for writing an essay in a degree level examination
B. A critique highlighting the weak point of a feature film story
C. A resume of the commercial achievements spread over a year
D. A short summary of the crucial ideas of a longer composition.
EXPLANATION
Precise is the gist of a passage expressed in as few words as possible containing all the essential points. Therefore the answer will be D

QUESTION: (fix this) I have bee to Spain, he told me. Select the correct indirect speech:
A. He told me that he could visit Spain.
B. He told me that he has visited Spain.
C. He told me that he had been to Spain
D. He told me that he has been to Spain.
EXPLANATION
The explanation for this question will be added soon.