PMC Paid Practice Tests Series 2021 With Explanation - Test 22

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Prepare the PMC Paid Practice Tests Series 2021 with our comprehensive past paper and explanation guide. Gain valuable insights into the exam format, question types, and essential topics covered. Our detailed explanations will help you understand the reasoning behind each answer, allowing you to strengthen your knowledge and improve your performance. Get a head start on your exam preparation and increase your chances of success with our PMC Paid Practice Tests Series 2021 past paper and explanation resource.

QUESTION: When I was young, I _______ (use) play cricket a lot.
A. Use
B. Used
C. Used to
D. Use to
EXPLANATION
The speaker is talking about a behaviour in the past that has now changed, hence the correct option is used to.

QUESTION: Comprehend key vocabulary: How are you doing? Im _____ to meet you.
A. Calm
B. Lovely
C. Pleased
D. Helpful
EXPLANATION
This question tests vocabulary. Pleased refers to showing pleasure or satisfaction, especially during a greeting like the given statement.

QUESTION: Demonstrate correct use of articles and prepositions: ______ butter is melting.
A. A
B. An
C. The
D. No article
EXPLANATION
The butter in the statement is a specific noun, hence the is used to refer to it.

QUESTION: Demonstrate correct use of articles and prepositions. Demonstrate correct use of the subject-verb agreement. Demonstrate correct use of writing conventions of spelling, capitalization and punctuation to clarify meaning. Choose the correct sentence.
A. i think june is the hottest month.
B. I think june is the hottest month.
C. I think June is the hotest month.
D. I think June is the hottest month.
EXPLANATION
Option D demonstrates correct punctuation of proper nouns and pronouns.

QUESTION: Demonstrate correct use of articles and prepositions. Demonstrate correct use of the subject-verb agreement. Demonstrate correct use of writing conventions of spelling, capitalization and punctuation to clarify meaning. Had you worked hard (A)/ from the beginning (B)/ of the term (C)/ you will have passed. (D)
A. Had you worked hard
B. from the beginning
C. of the term
D. you will have passed
EXPLANATION
In statement D, the word would should replace will as the future is being talked about in regards to a past event.

QUESTION: Demonstrate control of tenses and sentence structure. God ______ those who help themselves.
A. Help
B. Helps
C. Has helped
D. Is helping
EXPLANATION
The statement is in third person and the present tense, and ‘God’ is a specific noun, hence helps is the correct option.

QUESTION: Demonstrate correct use of the subject-verb agreement. The samples on the tray in the lab _______ testing.
A. Need
B. Needs
C. Needing
D. Needed
EXPLANATION
‘Samples’ is a plural specific noun, hence needs will be used.

QUESTION: Demonstrate correct use of articles and prepositions. Demonstrate correct use of the subject-verb agreement. Demonstrate correct use of writing conventions of spelling, capitalization and punctuation to clarify meaning. Now the time was (A)/ to escape (B)/ and he opened the window (C)/ and jumped out. (D)
A. Now the time was
B. to escape
C. and he opened the window
D. and jumped out
EXPLANATION
Default position of time adjunct like ‘now’ is at the end of the clause, hence option A is incorrect.

QUESTION: Demonstrate correct use of articles and prepositions. Demonstrate correct use of the subject-verb agreement. Demonstrate correct use of writing conventions of spelling, capitalization, and punctuation to clarify meaning. Knocked sideways, the statue looked as if it would fall.
A. Knocked sideways, the statue looked
B.  The statue was knocked sideways, looked
C. The statue looked knocked sideways
D. The statue looked knocked sideways,
EXPLANATION
Option A demonstrates proper use of the main and subordinate clauses.

QUESTION: Demonstrate control of tenses and sentence structure. When I go swimming. I have to keep my eyes closed underwater.
A. Complex
B. Simple
C. Compound
D. None
EXPLANATION
The statement contains two verb groups, hence it is complex.

QUESTION: Demonstrate correct use of the subject-verb agreement. Neither you nor your sister should _____ to them.
A. Talking
B. Talks
C. Talk
D. Talked
EXPLANATION
Correct subject-verb agreement is fulfilled by using option C, talk as it is also conjugated as ‘talk to’ which is also correct.

QUESTION: Comprehend key vocabulary. Beckoned
A. Repelled
B. Moving
C. Summoned
D. Summoner
EXPLANATION
To beckon or to summon both imply instructing someone to be present at a place or time.

QUESTION: Demonstrate correct use of articles and prepositions. Some people are very keen ___ working in a team, but some others dont like depending on others.
A. On
B. In
C. Up
D. To
EXPLANATION
The preposition “on” can be followed by a verb ending with the ‘-ing’ suffix e.g ‘working’.

QUESTION: Demonstrate correct use of articles and prepositions. Demonstrate correct use of the subject-verb agreement. Demonstrate correct use of writing conventions of spelling, capitalization and punctuation to clarify meaning. Choose the correct sentence.
A. Charles Dickens wrote A Tale of Two Cities, Little Dorrit, A Christmas Carol and Bleak House amongst others.
B. Charles dickens wrote A Tale of Two Cities, Little Dorrit, A Christmas Carol and Bleak House amongst others.
C. Charles Dickens wrote A Tale of two cities, Little dorrit, A Christmas Carol and Bleak House amongst others.
D. Charles Dickens wrote A Tale of Two Cities Little Dorrit A Christmas Carol and Bleak House amongst others.
EXPLANATION
Option A demonstrates correct use of capitalization and punctuation.

QUESTION: Demonstrate correct use of writing conventions of spelling, capitalization and punctuation to clarify meaning. Choose the correct spelling of the word.
A. Shekspeare
B. Shakspare
C. Shakespare
D. Shakespeare
EXPLANATION
This question tests vocabulary. The correct spelling is Shakespeare, option D.

QUESTION: Demonstrate correct use of the subject-verb agreement. Neither my sisters nor my mother _____ going to sell the house.
A. Is
B. Am
C. Are
D. Had
EXPLANATION
Mother in the given sentence is a singular specific noun, hence it must be followed by a singular verb like “s for proper subject-verb agreement.

QUESTION: I love you. I cant ______ the thought of ever losing you.
A. Bear
B. Bare
C. Support
D. Think of
EXPLANATION
To bare the thought means to endure something you are thinking.

QUESTION: Demonstrate correct use of articles and prepositions. Will you have _____ apple, ____ pear or _____ orange?
A. an ... a ... a
B. an ... a ... an
C. an ... a ... the
D. the ... the ... the
EXPLANATION
An is used before words starting with a vowel, and a is used before words starting with a consonant.

QUESTION: Demonstrate control of tenses and sentence structure. Our car broke down; so we came last.
A. Complex
B. Simple
C. Compound
D. Compound-complex
EXPLANATION
The given sentence is a complex sentence as there is an independent clause ‘Our car broke down’, and a dependent clause ‘so we came last’.

QUESTION: Identify the tense used in the given sentence:  You are always working on your laptop.
A. Present indefinite tense
B. Present perfect tense
C. Present continuous tense
D. Present perfect continuous tense
EXPLANATION
Present continuous tense is formed through the subject + present form of the verb (‘working’) + present participle of the verb (‘are’).

QUESTION: The animals in which coelom is formed due to splitting of the mesoderm are known as which of the following?
A. Pseudocoelom
B. Enterocoelous
C. Amphicoelous
D. Schizocoelous
EXPLANATION
Option D is correct since in Schizocoelus organisms, coelom develops by splitting of the mesodermal embryonic tissue. Option A is incorrect because Pseudocoelom is one of the three types of Coelom not originated by the mesodermal epithelium. Option B is incorrect because in Enteroceolus organisms, the coelom is formed by the pouches formed by the digestive tract. Option C is incorrect because Amphicoelous is a term used for vertebrae of certain fishes which is concave on both sides.

QUESTION: The dense fluid filled region in the chloroplast is ___.
A. Grana
B. Stroma
C. Thylakoid
D. lntergrana
EXPLANATION
Option B is correct since Stroma is the fluid of the chloroplast surrounding the thylakoid membrane. Option A is incorrect since Grana are stacks of structures called thylakoids, on which the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis take place. Option C is incorrect since Thylakoids are membrane-bound compartments inside chloroplasts. Option D is incorrect since Intergrana is the framework upon which grana are suspended.

QUESTION: Magnifying power of electron microscope as compared to eye is ___.
A. 500X
B. 250 000X
C. 500 000X
D. 100 000X
EXPLANATION
Option B is correct since the typical ( scanning ) electron microscope magnification power is X 250000. Option A is incorrect since it is in the range of Light microscope which is less than X1400. Option C is incorrect since the Transmission electron microscope has a magnification of X500000. Option D is incorrect since does not match the max magnification of any type of microscope.

QUESTION: Mating between relatives is called which of the following?
A. Ex breeding
B. Breeding
C. Inbreeding
D. Outbreeding
EXPLANATION
.Option C is correct since Inbreeding is the mating of organisms closely related by ancestry. Option A is incorrect since ex-breeding is a terminology used for animals who have been previously a breeder and are no longer used for the mating industry. Option B is incorrect since Breeding is the mating and production of offspring by animals which are not necessary to be relatives. Option D is incorrect since Outbreeding, the reverse case of inbreeding, means the production of offspring through mating between individuals distantly related by ancestral descendent.

QUESTION: What is the size of Parvovirus?
A. 200 nm
B. 20 nm
C. 30 nm
D. 100 nm
EXPLANATION
Option B is correct because Parvoviruses are non-enveloped, icosahedral particles 18 to 26 nm in diameter. Option A is incorrect since the 46 chromosomes found in human cells have a combined length of 200 nm. Option C is incorrect since The nucleosomes are then wrapped into a 30 nm spiral called a solenoid. Option D is incorrect since nanoparticles have a size of 100 nm.

QUESTION: In parthenocarpy which levels are high in ovaries?
A. Gibberellins
B. Cytokinins
C. Auxins
D. All of these
EXPLANATION
Option C is correct since parthenocarpic fruits (development of fruit without fertilization) have a higher content of Auxin in their ovaries. Option A is incorrect since gibberellins is used to induce parthenocarpy by external application. Option B is incorrect since cytokinins is used to induce parthenocarpy by external application. Option D is incorrect since gibberellins and cytokinins are both not in high levels in ovaries and are applied externally.

QUESTION: Competitive inhibition can be overcome by using ____.
A. Low concentration of substrate
B. High concentration of inhibitor
C. Moderate concentration of inhibitor
D. High concentration of substrate
EXPLANATION
Option D is correct since the presence of the inhibitor, fewer active sites are available to act on the substrate. But the enzymes overall structure is unaffected by the inhibitor, it is still able to catalyze the reaction on substrate molecules that do bind to an active site. Note that since the inhibitor and substrate bind at the same site, competitive inhibition can be overcome simply by raising the substrate concentration. Option A is incorrect since a low concentration of substrate means fewer active sites available to act on the substrate, and the effect of the competitive inhibitor increases. Option B is incorrect since a high concentration of inhibitor means fewer active sites available to act on the substrate, and the effect of competitive inhibitor increases. Option C is incorrect since to overcome competitive inhibition concentration of substrate should be higher than the concentration of inhibitor.

QUESTION: In mixed inhibition, the allosteric effect affects the ___.
A. Shape of substrate
B. Shape of inhibitor
C. Shape of enzyme
D. None of these
EXPLANATION
Option C is correct since mixed inhibition is a type of enzyme inhibition in which the inhibitor may bind to the enzyme whether or not the enzyme has already bound the substrate, but has a greater affinity for one state or the other. In mixed inhibition, the inhibitor binds to an allosteric site which changes the shape of the enzyme, i.e. a site different from the active site where the substrate binds. Option A is incorrect since the shape of the substrate remains unchanged during mixed inhibition. Option B is incorrect since the shape of the inhibitor remains unchanged during mixed inhibition. Option D is incorrect since option C is the correct option.

QUESTION: The darker, outer portion of the brain is called:
A. White matter
B. Gray matter
C. Reflex arc
D. Medulla
EXPLANATION
Option B is correct since, In the brain, gray matter refers to the darker, outer portion. Option A is incorrect since the white matter is the lighter inner section of the brain Option C is incorrect since the reflex arc is a special type of neural circuit that begins with a sensory neuron at a receptor and ends with a motor neuron at an effector without involving the brain. Option D is incorrect since the medulla is the lowest part of the brain and the lowest portion of the brainstem.

QUESTION: Choose the region/s of spinal cord:
A. Cervical
B. Thoracic
C. Lumbar
D. AlI of these
EXPLANATION
Option D is correct since the spinal cord is divided into four different regions: the cervical, thoracic, lumbar and sacral regions.

QUESTION: The end or complete stop of the menstrual cycle is called ___.
A. Ovulation
B. Menstruation
C. Fertilization
D. Menopause
EXPLANATION
Option D is the correct option since Menopause is the time that marks the end of your menstrual cycles. Option A is incorrect since Ovulation is a part of the menstrual cycle when an egg is released from your ovary. Option B is incorrect since Menstruation is normal vaginal bleeding that occurs as a part of a womens menstrual cycle. Option C is incorrect since Fertilization is the process of combining the male gamete with the female gamete.

QUESTION: The function of the lymph node is to filter ___.
A. Blood
B. Lymph
C. Semen
D. Amniotic fluid
EXPLANATION
Option B is correct since lymph nodes filter substances that travel through the lymphatic fluid. Option A is incorrect since blood is filtered by the kidneys. Option C is incorrect since semen is a greyish-white bodily fluid that is secreted by the gonads of male animals. Option D is incorrect since the amniotic fluid is the protective liquid contained by the amniotic sac.

QUESTION: If a genetic shift occurs within a population the mutant allele becomes ___.
A. Genotype
B. Phenotype
C. Wild type
D. All of these
EXPLANATION
Option C is correct since genetic shift occurs within a population the mutant allele becomes wild type. Option A is incorrect since genotype refers to the genetic makeup of an organism. Option B is incorrect since phenotype refers to the observable physical properties of an organism. Option D is incorrect since only option C is correct,

QUESTION: What percentage of water is found in brain cells?
A. 70
B. 80
C. 85
D. 90
EXPLANATION
Option C is the correct option since 85% of water is found in the brain. Options A, B and C are incorrect since option C is a fact.

QUESTION: Which of these membranes is the richest in protein?
A. Nuclear membrane
B. Inner mitochondrial membrane
C. Endoplasmic reticulum
D. Plasma membrane
EXPLANATION
Option B is correct since membranes are involved in ATP production (such as the internal membranes of mitochondria and chloroplasts), approximately 75% is protein. Option A is incorrect since The nuclear envelope is composed of the nuclear lamina, nuclear pore complexes and nuclear membranes. Option C is incorrect since the structure of the endoplasmic reticulum is a network of membranes called cisternae and phospholipid membrane encloses the cisternal space. Option D is incorrect since a typical plasma membrane is somewhere in between, with protein accounting for about 50% of its mass.

QUESTION: The sperm duct from each side passes into which of the following?
A. Ureter
B. Urethra
C. Testes
D. Abdominal cavity
EXPLANATION
The sperm duct is a long tube that is located near each testicle. The epididymis is the tube which moves the sperm from the testicles. Vas deferens is a tube in which the sperm is stored and it carries the sperm out of the scrotal sac.

QUESTION: The Venus flower basket is also known as which of the following?
A. Sycon
B. Leucosolenia
C. Spongilla
D. Euplectella
EXPLANATION
Option D is correct since the binomial name for the Venus flower basket is Euplectella. Option A is incorrect because Sycon is a genus of calcareous sponges belonging to the family Sycettidae. Option B is incorrect since Leucosolenia is a genus of calcareous sponges belonging to the family Leucosoleniidae. Option C is incorrect since Spongilla is a genus of freshwater sponges and has a leuconoid body form with a skeleton composed of siliceous spicules.

QUESTION: What is not the function of cerebrospinal fluid?
A. It cushions the brain
B. It protects the central nervous system
C. It increases pressure at the base of the brain.
D. It fills the subarachnoid space
EXPLANATION
Option C is incorrect as cerebrospinal fluid decreases the pressure at the base of the brain by evenly dividing it in a liquid medium. Option A is correct because cerebrospinal fluid helps protect the system by acting like a cushion against sudden impact or injury to the brain. Option B is correct because cerebrospinal fluid helps protect the system by acting like a cushion against sudden impact or injury to the spinal cord and helps it to work properly. Option D is correct because the cerebrospinal fluid occupies the subarachnoid space (between the arachnoid mater and the pia mater) and the ventricular system around and inside the brain and spinal cord. It fills the ventricles of the brain, cisterns, and sulci, as well as the central canal of the spinal cord. https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cerebrospinal_fluid#/media/File%3ABlausen_0216_CerebrospinalSystem.png

QUESTION: The optimal pH for working of enzymes is ___.
A. 5
B. 7.5
C. 9
D. 3
EXPLANATION
Option B is correct because the optimum PH for working enzyme is neutral which is around 7 which is closest to (7.5). Option A is incorrect because in acidic conditions, typical enzymes get denatured and only the digestive enzyme of the stomach has an optimum PH of 2.5. Option C is incorrect because in alkaline conditions, typical enzymes get denatured and only the enzyme catalase has an optimum PH of 9. Option D is incorrect because in acidic conditions, typical enzymes get denatured and only the digestive enzyme of the stomach has an optimum PH of 2.5. https://images.cram.com/images/upload-flashcards/52/35/46/23523546_m.png

QUESTION: Which of the following processes can take place in the presence and absence of oxygen?:
A. Glycolysis
B. Pyruvic acid oxidation
C. Krebs cycle
D. Electron transport chain
EXPLANATION
Option A is correct since Glycolysis is a linear metabolic pathway of enzyme-catalyzed reactions that convert glucose into two molecules of pyruvate in the presence of oxygen or into two molecules of lactate in the absence of oxygen. So it can take place in both the presence and absence of oxygen. Option B is incorrect because in Pyruvate oxidation each pyruvate from glycolysis goes into the mitochondrial matrix. There, it’s converted into a two-carbon molecule bound to Coenzyme A, known as acetyl CoA. This process requires oxygen. Option C is incorrect because during the Krebs cycle the acetyl CoA made in the last step combines with a four-carbon molecule and goes through a cycle of reactions, ultimately regenerating the four-carbon starting molecule. This process requires oxygen. Option D is incorrect because oxygen sits at the end of the electron transport chain, where it accepts electrons and picks up protons to form water. If oxygen isn’t there to accept electrons the electron transport chain will stop running, and ATP will no longer be produced by chemiosmosis.

QUESTION: What is the human breathing rate during hard physical work?
A. 10 to 15 times per minute
B. 10 to 20 times per minute
C. 80 to 120 times per minute
D. 30 to 40 times per minute
EXPLANATION
Option D is correct because when you exercise, your muscles work harder, and your body uses more oxygen and produces more carbon dioxide. To cope with this extra demand, your breathing has to increase from about 15 times a minute when you are resting, and to about 40 times a minute during exercise. Option A is incorrect because the human breathing rate during rest is 15 times per minute. Option B is incorrect because the human breathing rate during rest is 15 times per minute. Option C is incorrect because a breathing rate of 80 to 120 is not possible in humans.

QUESTION: Which of the following about the nucleolus is not true?
A. No membranous boundary
B. Hereditary center
C. Site of synthesis for rRNA
D. Composed of two regions
EXPLANATION
Option B is correct because the nucleus of a cell is called its hereditary center so, option B is not true. Option A is incorrect because the nucleolus has no limiting membrane which is true. Option C is incorrect because the nucleolus participates in assembling the ribosomes and site of synthesis of rRNA which is true. Option D is incorrect because the nucleolus has two distinctive regions, the pars fibrosa which contains the proteins required for transcription and the pars granulosa which contains the ribosomal precursors which is true.

QUESTION: What molecule would you not expect to find in a retrovirus?
A. Adenine
B. Thymine
C. Uracil
D. Guanine
EXPLANATION
Option B is correct because retrovirus has 2 strands of RNA. RNA has Uracil instead of thymine and DNA has thymine instead of uracil. So you would not expect to find thymine in a retrovirus. Option A is not correct because Adenine is present in both strands of DNA and RNA. Option C is not correct because Uracil is present in strands of RNA. Option D is not correct because Guanine is present in both strands of DNA and RNA.

QUESTION: Which of the following is universal donor?
A. A
B. B
C. AB
D. O
EXPLANATION
Option D is the correct option because people with type O blood are called universal donors because their donated red blood cells have no A, B or Rh antigens and can therefore be safely given to people of any blood group. Option A is incorrect because blood group A has antigen A present on it so can only donate blood to Type A and AB. Option B is incorrect because blood group B has antigen B present on it so can only donate blood to Type B and AB. Option C is incorrect because blood group AB has antigen AB present on it so can only donate blood to Type AB.

QUESTION: The proteins at the junction between sarcomeres form the ___.
A. H zone
B. M line
C. Z line
D. A band
EXPLANATION
Option C is the correct option because a sarcomere is defined as the segment between two neighbouring z lines. Option A is not correct because H-band is the zone of the thick filaments that has no actin and is located within the A-band. Option B is not correct because within the H-zone is a thin M-line, which appears in the middle of the sarcomere formed of cross-connecting elements of the cytoskeleton. Option D is not correct because an A-band contains the entire length of a single thick filament. The anisotropic band contains both thick and thin filaments.

QUESTION: In what category of bacteria does Neisseria most likely fall?
A. Cocci
B. Bacilli
C. Spirochete
D. None of these
EXPLANATION
Option A is the correct option because Neisseria species are gram-negative cocci, 0.6 to 1.0 μm in diameter which are spherical shaped. Option B is not correct because Bacilli are rod-shaped bacteria, while Neisseria are sphere-shaped bacteria. Option C is not correct because Spirochete are Spiral shaped bacteria, while Neisseria are sphere-shaped bacteria. Option D is not correct because Option A is the correct answer.

QUESTION: Haemoglobin can carry ___.
A. 1 molecule of oxygen
B. 2 molecules of oxygen
C. 3 molecules of oxygen
D. 4 molecules of oxygen
EXPLANATION
The haemoglobin molecule has four binding sites for oxygen molecules and the iron atoms in the four heme groups. Thus each Hb tetramer can bind four oxygen molecules.

QUESTION: The homologous organs show similarity in ___.
A. Shape
B. Origin
C. Function
D. Size
EXPLANATION
Option B is the correct option because homologous structures show similarity in their connection to a common ancestor by virtue so, they show similarity in origin. Option A is not correct because Homologous structures do not have the same shape, size or perform the same function. Option C is not correct because Homologous structures do not have the same shape, size or perform the same function. Option D is not correct because Homologous structures do not have the same shape, size or perform the same function.

QUESTION: The genotype-phenotype distinction was proposed by ___.
A. Darwin
B. Mendell
C. Wilhelm Johannsen
D. None of these
EXPLANATION
Option C is the correct option because Wilhelm Johannsen first proposed the distinction between genotype and phenotype in the study of heredity while working in Denmark in 1909. Option A is not correct because the theory of evolution by natural selection was proposed by Charles Darwin. Option B is not correct because Gregor Mendel through his work on pea plants discovered the fundamental laws of inheritance. Option D is not correct because Option A is correct.

QUESTION: According to the fluid mosaic model, the plasma membrane is composed of which of the following?:
A. Phospholipids
B. Extrinsic proteins
C. Intrinsic proteins
D. All of these
EXPLANATION
Option D is the correct option because the plasma membrane is a biological membrane that separates the interior of a cell from its outside environment, and is composed of phospholipids, cholesterol, extrinsic proteins, intrinsic proteins and carbohydrates. Option A is not correct because extrinsic proteins and intrinsic proteins are also present in the plasma membrane. Option B is not correct because intrinsic proteins and phospholipids are also present in the plasma membrane. Option C is not correct because extrinsic proteins and phospholipids are also present in the plasma membrane.

QUESTION: The hinge joint and ball and socket joints are the types of:
A. Freely movable joints
B. Slightly movable joints
C. Immovable joints
D. None of these
EXPLANATION
Option A is the correct option because the six types of a freely movable joint include ball and socket, saddle, hinge, condyloid, pivot and gliding. Most joints within the human body are this type. Motion is the purpose of the joint. Option B is not correct because in slightly movable joints two or more bones are held together so tightly that only limited movement is permitted. For example, the vertebrae of the spine. Option C is not correct because in immovable joints the two or more bones are in close contact, but no movement can occur. For example, the bones of the skull. Option D is not correct because Option A is correct.

QUESTION: The muscle which moves a body part away from the midline of the body is:
A. Flexor muscles
B. Extensor muscles
C. Adductor muscles
D. Abductor muscles
EXPLANATION
Option D is the correct option because an abductor muscle is any of the muscles that cause movement of a limb away from the midplane of the body or away from a neighbouring part or limb. Option A is not correct because a flexor muscle is any of the muscles that decrease the angle between bones on two sides of a joint, as in bending the elbow or knee. Option B is not correct because an extensor muscle is any of the muscles that increase the angle between members of a limb, by straightening the elbow or knee. Option C is not correct because the adductor muscle whose contraction moves a limb or other part of the body towards the midline of the body or another part.

QUESTION: 60S and 40S subunit combine to form what size particle?
A. 80S
B. 90S
C. 100S
D. 110S
EXPLANATION
Option A is the correct option because 60S subunit combines with 40S subunit of ribosome to form 80S ribosome of eukaryotes whereas 50S and 30S subunits combine to form 70S ribosome of prokaryotes. Option B is not correct because Eukaryotic ribosomes are called 80S ribosomes while prokaryotes such as bacteria have a smaller version called 70S ribosomes. 90, 100, and 110S dont exist. Option C is not correct because Eukaryotic ribosomes are called 80S ribosomes while prokaryotes such as bacteria have a smaller version called 70S ribosomes. 90, 100, and 110S dont exist. Option D is not correct because Eukaryotic ribosomes are called 80S ribosomes while prokaryotes such as bacteria have a smaller version called 70S ribosomes. 90, 100, and 110S dont exist.

QUESTION: A 25 years old female with chronic fatigue was diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia and low blood count. What is the cause of her fatigue?
A. Reduction in amount of Fe-S centers
B. Lowered production of water from the electron transport chain that cause dehydration
C. iron is important for electron transport chain
D. Iron is important for NADH production
EXPLANATION
Option C is the correct option because Fe-S clusters mediate electron transfer within and between the respiratory complexes of the electron transport chain so iron is important for the electron transport chain to continue and for ATP synthesis. Option A is not correct because the reduction in the amount of Fe-S centers doesnt lead to low blood count. Option B is not correct because lower production of water does not lead to anemia. Option D is not correct because NADH is a crucial coenzyme in making ATP; it acts as a hydrogen acceptor in an oxidation-reduction reaction and does not require Iron.

QUESTION: Which of these lobes contains Brocas area, which is associated with speech ability?
A. Frontal
B. Parietal
C. Temporal
D. Occipital
EXPLANATION
Option A is the correct option because the location and limits of Brocas area is in the frontal lobe and is associated with speech ability. Option B is not correct because the parietal lobe is roughly located in the upper back area of the skull. It processes sensory information it receives from the outside world, mainly relating to touch, taste, and temperature. Option C is not correct because the temporal lobes sit behind the ears. They are most commonly associated with processing auditory information and with encoding. Option D is not correct because the occipital lobe is present posterior to the parietal and temporal lobes. It is the visual processing area of the brain.

QUESTION: Octopus belongs to Phylum mollusca because __.
A. It has suckers and tentacles
B. It has a soft body covered by a shell
C. It has a soft, unsegmented body with a thin, flexible internal shell
D. It has a soft, segmented body with a head and a foot
EXPLANATION
Option C is the correct option because the octopus has bilateral symmetry, with two eyes, and a break, with its mouth at the center point of the eight limbs. It has a soft body that can alter its shape and enables itself to squeeze through small gaps. They have triploblastic eyes. For respiration and locomotion, they use a siphon which helps them expel a jet of water. Some of the octopuses live in the intertidal zone and others at abyssal depths. Octopuses have a closed circulatory system. Option A is not correct because an octopus has eight appendages, each of which has rows of suckers running its length, but these are not tentacles in strict anatomical terms, they are arms. Option B is not correct because their soft body is not covered in any shell. Option D is not correct because the octopus has bilateral symmetry and no foot.

QUESTION: Enzyme-substrate specificity is a result of which property of enzymes?
A. The primary structure of enzymes
B. The secondary structure of enzymes
C. Tertiary structure of enzymes
D. Quaternary structure of enzymes
EXPLANATION
Option C is the correct option because each different type of enzyme will usually act on only one substrate to catalyse one biological reaction. Enzymes are specific because different enzymes have differently shaped active sites. The shape of the active site of an enzyme is complementary to the shape of its specific substrate. This means they are the correct shapes to fit together. Tertiary structure refers to the overall folding of the entire polypeptide chain into a specific 3D shape. Their tertiary structure gives proteins a very specific shape. Option A is not correct because proteins primary structure is the linear sequence (instead of a 3D shape for the enzyme) of amino acids in a peptide or protein. Option B is not correct because the secondary structure in enzymes refers to the interaction of amino acids in a chain (primary structure) which are closely located. There are two types of secondary structures: helical (called α helices) and pleated sheets (called β pleated sheets) which do not determine the 3D structure of an enzyme. Option D is not correct because proteins are made up of multiple polypeptide chains, also known as subunits. When these subunits come together, they give the protein its quaternary structure. However, they dont determine the enzyme substrate specificity as it is already determined by the tertiary structure.

QUESTION: The double-layered thin membranous sacs that cover the lungs are called ___.
A. Alveoli
B. Diaphragm
C. Epithelial membrane
D. Pleura
EXPLANATION
Option D is the correct option because the pleura is a vital part of the respiratory tract whose role it is to cushion and cover the lungs, and to reduce any friction which may develop between the lungs, rib cage, and chest cavity. The pleura consists of a two-layered membrane that covers each lung. Option A is not correct because the alveoli are where the lungs and the blood exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide during the process of breathing in and breathing out. Found at end of bronchioles inside of lungs. Option B is not correct because the diaphragm is a thin skeletal muscle that sits at the base of the chest and separates the abdomen from the chest. It is located below the lungs. Option C is not correct because the epithelial membrane is composed of epithelium attached to a layer of connective tissue but the pleural membrane covers the lungs.

QUESTION: Which of the following processes had resulted in the production of different breeds of domestic dogs and pigeons?
A. Natural selection
B. Cross breeding
C. Artificial selection
D. Self breeding
EXPLANATION
Option C is the correct option because the keyword in the question is “domestic”. Artificial selection is the process by which humans use animal breeding and plant breeding to selectively develop particular phenotypic traits. Domesticated animals are known as breeds, normally bred by a professional breeder, while domesticated plants are known as varieties, cultigens, cultivars, or breeds. Option A is not correct because natural selection is a process of adaptation by an organism to the changing environment by bringing selective changes to its genotype or genetic composition. Natural selection is based on the adaptive characteristics of animals. Artificial selection is based on the desirable characters selected by humans. Option B is not correct because crossbreed is an organism with purebred parents of two different breeds, varieties, or populations and is also not used for pigeons Option D is not correct because self-fertilization is the union of male and female gametes from the same haploid, diploid, or polyploid organism. It is an extreme degree of inbreeding and increases homozygosity and does not lead to different breeds.

QUESTION: HIV glycoprotein is composed of ___ subunits.
A. 11
B. 12
C. 13
D. 14
EXPLANATION
Option B is the correct option because HIV glycoprotein is composed of 12 subunits which is a fact. Options A, C, and D are not correct because option B is a fact (refer to the diagram of HIV and count number of glycoproteins).

QUESTION: A cofactor made of an inorganic ion which is detachable is called a ___.
A. Prosthetic group
B. Coenzyme
C. Activator
D. Cofactor
EXPLANATION
Option C is the correct option because the inorganic cofactor is different from metallic ions. These are only attached to enzymes when substrate binds and are detachable cofacts. Such cofactors are called activators. Option A is not correct because a prosthetic group is covalently bonded part of an enzyme which is permanently attached to the enzyme and does not detach after completion of the reaction. Option B is not correct because the coenzyme is detachable but an organic cofactor. Option D is not correct because cofactor is a non-protein part of an enzyme and can be organic or inorganic.

QUESTION: Natural selection can amplify or diminish variations that are ___.
A. Heritable
B. Non heritable
C. Both A and B
D. Acquired
EXPLANATION
Option A is the correct option because Natural selection can amplify or diminish only heritable traits. Acquired characteristics cannot be passed onto offspring. Option B is not correct because non-heritable can also be not passed on to the next generation. Option C is not correct because option B is incorrect. Option D is not correct because acquired traits are not passed onto offspring because they are not coded for in the individual gametes.

QUESTION: Water vapor exits and CO2 enters a leaf through the ___.
A. Stomata
B. Grana
C. Porphyrin ring
D. Photons
EXPLANATION
Option A is the correct option because water vapour exits and CO2 enters a leaf through stomata. Guard cells control the opening and closing of stomata. The stomata are open to allow gases to cross the leaf surface, the plant loses water vapour to the atmosphere. Option B is not correct because a granum is a stack of thylakoid discs inside chloroplast on which the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis take place. Option C is not correct because a porphyrin is a large ring molecule consisting of 4 pyrroles, which are smaller rings made from 4 carbons and 1 nitrogen and has nothing to do with the exchange of gases. Option D is not correct because photons are a packet of energy of electromagnetic radiation.

QUESTION: What do the two peaks in the action spectrum represent?
A. Absorption of light
B. Carbon dioxide consumption
C. Emission of light
D. Both A and B
EXPLANATION
Option D is the correct option because the Action Spectrum describes the wavelengths that drive photosynthesis and indicates the overall rate of photosynthesis at each wavelength of light. It shows which wavelength of light is most effectively used in a specific chemical reaction. Some reactants can use specific wavelengths of light more effectively. The Y-axis of the graph gives the absorption of light (A) and it is directly related to the rate of photosynthesis so the greater the rate of photosynthesis carbon dioxide consumption increases directly (B) so the absorption of light is directly proportional to CO2 consumption. Option A is not correct because option B is also correct so the answer will be option D. Option B is not correct because option A is also correct so the answer will be option D. Option C is not correct because the Y-axis of the action spectrum represents the absorption of light not the emission of light.

QUESTION: Acrosome is filled with which of the following?
A. Lipids
B. Hormones
C. Digestive enzymes
D. All of these
EXPLANATION
Option C is the correct option because the acrosome is a special kind of organelle with a cap-like structure that covers the anterior portion of the head of the spermatozoon. The acrosome is derived from the Golgi apparatus and contains digestive enzymes. Option A is not correct because they are formed in the Golgi apparatus and do not contain lipids. Option B is not correct because they only contain hydrolytic enzymes. Option D is not correct because options A and B are incorrect.

QUESTION: The oxidation phase of glycolysis is ___.
A. Energy consuming
B. Energy yielding
C. Net neutralization of energy
D. Both A and C
EXPLANATION
Option B is the correct option because Glycolysis can be broadly defined as an energy-yielding pathway that results in the cleavage of a hexose (glucose) to a triose (pyruvate). Glycolysis produces energy in the form of ATP, NADH, and pyruvate, which itself enters the citric acid cycle to produce more energy. Option A is not correct because although glycolysis uses 2 ATP it yields 4 ATP so there is a net gain of 2 ATP so it is an energy-yielding process, not an energy-consuming process. Option C is not correct because although glycolysis uses 2 ATP it yields 4 ATP so there is a net gain of 2 ATP so it is an energy-yielding process. Option D is not correct because option C is incorrect.

QUESTION: True breeding variety is produced by which of the following?
A. Cross fertilization
B. Self fertilization
C. Both A and B
D. None of these
EXPLANATION
Option B is the correct option because, with plants, true-breeding occurs when plants produce only offspring of the same variety when they self-pollinate (self-fertilization) which increases homozygosity. It is only possible due to inbreeding. Option A is not correct because cross-fertilisation increases heterozygosity and leads to genetic variation. Option C is not correct because option A is not correct. Option D is not correct because option B is correct.

QUESTION: Which of the following genetic diseases is caused by mutations in a membrane protein?
A. Alzheimers disease
B. Parkinsons disease
C. Anemia
D. Hemolytic anemia
EXPLANATION
Hemolytic anemia is a disorder in which red blood cells are destroyed faster than they can be made. The destruction of red blood cells is called hemolysis.

QUESTION: A hydrostatic skeleton is present in ___.
A. Arthropods
B. Fishes
C. Annelids
D. Nematodes
EXPLANATION
Option C is the correct option because Hydrostatic skeletons are very common in invertebrates. A common example is an earthworm. Also, hydrostatic nature is common in marine life such as jellyfish, starfish, and sea anemones. They fall under the phylum Annelids. Option A is not correct because the arthropod skeleton is an exoskeleton Option B is not correct because The skeleton of the fish is made of either cartilage or bone. The fins are made up of bony fin rays. Bones are rigid organs that form part of the endoskeleton of vertebrates. Option D is not correct because although Nematoda has a hydrostatic skeleton the more preferable option is Annelids as it is mentioned in books.

QUESTION: Monosynaptic refers to the presence of how many chemical synapse/s?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
EXPLANATION
Option A is the correct option because, in a monosynaptic reflex, the message travels from the sensory neuron to the motor neuron with only one synapse. Option B is not correct because it is polysynaptic, more than one interneuron connects sensory and motor neurone Option C is not correct because it is polysynaptic, more than one interneuron connects sensory and motor neurone Option D is not correct because it is polysynaptic, more than one interneuron connects sensory and motor neurone

QUESTION: For respiratory metabolism, bacterial cell membrane contains ___.
A. Proteins
B. Lipids
C. Enzymes
D. Chemicals
EXPLANATION
Option C is the correct option because all of the proteins of the electron transport chain as well as the enzyme ATP synthase are located in the bacterial plasma membrane. Option A is not correct because bacterial membranes are composed of 40 % phospholipid and 60 % protein but not for respiratory metabolism. Option B is not correct because bacterial membranes are composed of 40 % phospholipid and 60 % protein but not for respiratory metabolism. Option D is not correct because all of the proteins of the electron transport chain as well as the enzyme ATP synthase are located in the bacterial plasma membrane.

QUESTION: Which lobe is involved in short-term memory, speech, musical rhythm and some degree of smell recognition?
A. Frontal
B. Parietal
C. Temporal
D. Occipital
EXPLANATION
Option C is the correct option because the sides of the brain, temporal lobes are involved in short-term memory, speech, musical rhythm and some degree of smell recognition. Option A is not correct because the frontal lobe is associated with speech, voluntary movement and expressive language. Option B is not correct because the parietal lobe is roughly located in the upper back area of the skull. It processes sensory information it receives from the outside world, mainly relating to touch, taste, and temperature. Option D is not correct because the occipital lobe is the back part of the brain that is involved with vision.

QUESTION: The best definition of natural selection is:
A. Survival of the fittest
B. The most fit individuals adapt to their environment better than less fit individuals
C. Those who eat better, are healthier, and live longer are the most fit within a population
D. Preservation of traits that lead to increased survival and reproduction
EXPLANATION
Option D is the correct option because the process whereby organisms better adapted (preservation of traits) to their environment tend to survive (increased survival) and produce more offspring (increased reproduction). Option A is not correct because although every definition is correct it is a very brief definition and does not include increased reproduction. Option B is not correct because although every definition is correct it does not include increased reproduction and survival. Option C is not correct because there are many other factors and its about who is better adopted not who eats better and its not necessary if an organism eats better, survives and reproduces better.

QUESTION: Which of the statements is not true for compounds like glycoprotein and glycolipids?
A. They are conjugated molecules of carbohydrates
B. Both have role in the extracellular matrix of animals and bacterial cell wall
C. They are components of biological membranes.
D. Both are produced and secreted by endoplasmic reticulum
EXPLANATION
Option D is the correct option because Glycolipids and Glycolipids are synthesized in the Golgi apparatus, which is not true. Option A is not correct because both have the word “glyco-” which means a molecule of carbohydrate which is true. Option B is not correct because both have roles in the extracellular matrix of animals and bacterial cell walls which is true. Option C is not correct because Both are components of biological membranes which is true.

QUESTION: What are the end products of the ETC in animals?
A. ATP
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Water
D. Both A and C
EXPLANATION
Option D is the correct option because the end products of the electron transport chain are the formation of ATP (option A) and the formation of water (option C) by the reduction of O2. Option A is not correct because option C is also correct so the correct answer is option D. Option B is not correct because the Krebs cycle takes place inside the mitochondria. The Krebs cycle produces the CO2 that you breathe out. Option C is not correct because option A is also correct so the correct answer is option D.

QUESTION: Which of the following was considered as a missing link between reptiles and birds?
A. Pteranodon
B. Avimimus
C. Caudipteryx
D. Archaeopteryx
EXPLANATION
Option D is the correct option because Archaeopteryx is widely considered a transitional fossil between the birds and reptiles. In many ways, the Archaeopteryx is more similar to small theropod dinosaurs than it is to modern birds. However, the evolutionary history of the Archaeopteryx has never been that simple. Option A is not correct because Pteranodon is a genus of pterosaur that included some of the largest known flying reptiles Option B is not correct because Avimimus, meaning bird mimic, was named for its bird-like characteristics, Option C is not correct because Caudipteryx is a genus of peacock-sized theropod dinosaurs. They were feathered and extremely birdlike in their overall appearance, to the point that some palaeontologists think it is a bird.

QUESTION: A common polyhedral capsid shape of viruses is a ____.
A. Pentagon
B. Cube
C. Icosahedron
D. Pyramid
EXPLANATION
Option C is the correct option because polyhedral viruses consist of nucleic acid surrounded by a polyhedral (many-sided) shell or capsid, usually in the form of an icosahedron. Option A is not correct because virus capsids predominantly come in two shapes, helical and icosahedral. The helix is a spiral shape that curves cylindrically around an axis. Option B is not correct because virus capsids predominantly come in two shapes, helical and icosahedral. The helix is a spiral shape that curves cylindrically around an axis. Option D is not correct because virus capsids predominantly come in two shapes, helical and icosahedral. The helix is a spiral shape that curves cylindrically around an axis.

QUESTION: Carbonic anhydrase is found in ___.
A. RBC
B. Parabronchi
C. Pleura
D. None of these
EXPLANATION
Option A is the correct option because an enzyme present in red blood cells, carbonic anhydrase, aids in the conversion of carbon dioxide to carbonic acid and bicarbonate ions. Option B is not correct because In birds the bronchioles are termed parabronchi. It is the parabronchi that generally open into the microscopic alveoli in mammals and atria in birds. Option C is not correct because the pleura is a vital part of the respiratory tract whose role it is to cushion the lungs and reduce any friction which may develop between the lungs, rib cage, and chest cavity. Option D is not correct because option A is the correct option.

QUESTION: How many different types of bronchitis are there?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
EXPLANATION
Option A is the correct option because There are two different types of bronchitis, acute and chronic. Options B, C and D are not correct because option A is a fact.

QUESTION: The optimum pH for the functioning of pancreatic lipase is ___.
A. 8
B. 9
C. 7
D. 6
EXPLANATION
Option D is the correct option because the small intestine has an alkaline environment to neutralise the pH of chyme coming from the stomach. So according to the graph lipase has an optimum ph of 9 because at this value it has the highest relative activity. Option A is not correct because although 8 is the working ph of enzymes, the enzyme has the highest relative activity at 9 which is its optimum pH. Option C is not correct because the small intestine has alkaline pH and 7 is neutral. Option D is not correct because the small intestine has alkaline pH and 6 is acidic.

QUESTION: In prokaryotic cells, ribosomes are ___.
A. 50S + 40S
B. 60S + 40S
C. 80S
D. 70S
EXPLANATION
Option D is the correct option because the 50S and 30S subunits combine to form the 70S ribosome of prokaryotes. Option A is not correct because the 50S and 30S subunits combine to form 70S ribosome of prokaryotes but in the option, 40 is written instead of 30. Option B is not correct because the 60S subunit combines with the 40S subunit of ribosome to form 80S ribosome of eukaryotes. Option C is not correct because 80S ribosomes are found in eukaryotes.

QUESTION: Bacteriophages have been used widely in genetic research since they are the smallest and simplest biological entities capable of:
A. Self replication in host cell
B. Duplication
C. Self duplication
D. Multiplication in host cell
EXPLANATION
Option A is the correct option because bacteriophages are the smallest and simplest biological entities capable of self-replication in the host cell. Option B is not correct because duplication is the doubling of the amount of DNA as a result of replication. Option C is not correct because bacteriophages are capable of self-replication, not self-duplication.

QUESTION: Hyaline cartilage forms a joint between a ___.
A. Growing bone
B. Mature bones
C. Lamellar bone
D. Secondary bone
EXPLANATION
Option A is the correct option because Hyaline cartilage exists on the sternal ends of the ribs, in the larynx, trachea, and bronchi, and on the articulating surfaces of bones. It gives the structures a definite but pliable form. The presence of collagen fibres makes such structures and joints strong, but with limited mobility and flexibility, Throughout childhood and adolescence, there remains a thin plate of hyaline cartilage between the diaphysis and epiphysis known as the growth plate. Eventually, this hyaline cartilage will be removed and replaced by bone, so it forms a joint between growing bones. Options B, C and D are not correct because option A is a fact.

QUESTION: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic feature of tapeworm?
A. Each body segment has two sets of male and female reproductive organs
B. The digestive tract develops from endodermal cells in the embryo
C. The body can be cut into two parts, which are mirror images of each other, in one plane only
D. None of the above
EXPLANATION
Option B is the correct option because tapeworms do not have a digestive tract. Instead, they absorb their nutrients from the gut contents of the host directly through their outside surface. Option B is not a characteristic of a tapeworm. Option A is not correct because tapeworms are hermaphroditic, each segment has two sets of male and female reproductive organs, which will fill the segment with fertile eggs as the segment is pushed back from the neck. When the segment is full of eggs, it detaches itself from the adult tapeworm and is passed into the faeces. Option A is a characteristic of a tapeworm. Option C is not correct because tapeworms are bilaterally symmetrical, the right and left sides are similar so the body can be cut into two equal parts. Option D is not correct because option B is not a characteristic of tapeworm.

QUESTION: Which type of light causes the highest rate of photosynthesis?
A. Blue
B. Red
C. Orange
D. Violet
EXPLANATION
Option B is the correct option because the rate of photosynthesis is maximum in red light. This was proved by the Emerson enhancement effect which states that there is an increase in the rate of photosynthesis when the chloroplast is exposed to a light of wavelength 680 nm and 700 nm. When chloroplast is exposed to a light of 680 nm and 700 nm wavelengths simultaneously the rate of photosynthesis is much higher than the photosynthesis that takes place at a wavelength of the sum of the red light and far-red light. When a plant is given monochromatic light (single light colour), the highest absorption of blue light is seen, but the highest photosynthesis rate is seen in red light. Option A is not correct because when a plant is given monochromatic light (single light colour), the highest absorption of blue light is seen, but the highest photosynthesis rate is seen in red light. Option C is not correct because from the graph we can see that the rate of photosynthesis is very low in orange light compared to red light. Option D is not correct because from the graph we can see that the rate of photosynthesis is very low in violet light compared to red light.

QUESTION: Which type of bond is not formed in maintaining the tertiary structure of proteins?
A. Ionic
B. Hydrogen
C. Disulphide
D. Hydrophobic
EXPLANATION
Option D is the correct option because the tertiary structure of proteins is connected by monomers of amino acids by the peptide bond. The structure is composed of hydrogen bonds, ionic bonds, disulphide bonds and other interactions. The hydrophobic bond is absent in protein structure. Option A is not correct because the tertiary structure of proteins is connected by monomers of amino acid by the peptide bond. The structure is composed of hydrogen bonds, ionic bonds, and disulphide bonds. Option B is not correct because the tertiary structure of proteins is connected by monomers of amino acid by the peptide bond. The structure is composed of hydrogen bonds, ionic bonds, and disulphide bonds. Option C is not correct because the tertiary structure of proteins is connected by monomers of amino acid by the peptide bond. The structure is composed of hydrogen bonds, ionic bonds, and disulphide bonds.

QUESTION: Which of the following statements about neuron is incorrect?
A. They not only conduct impulses but also generate them
B. They are not the only cellular component of nervous system
C. They may show limited regenerative capabilities
D. Like all the living cells, they mature and divide to form similar cells
EXPLANATION
“Option D is the correct option because there is an absence of centrioles in the nerve cells and because of this, they are unable to perform mitosis and meiosis, hence these cells do not divide so statement D is false. Option A is not correct because when a neurons membrane potential is changed by chemical signals from a nearby cell a nerve impulse is generated so statement A is true. Option B is not correct because there are two broad classes of cells in the nervous system. (1)neurons, which process information, and (2) glia, which provide the neurons with mechanical and metabolic support so statement B is true. Option C is not correct because neurons show limited regenerative capabilities like in a process called neurogenesis so statement C is true.

QUESTION: The outer and inner membranes of a mitochondria spindle are ___.
A. Structurally and functionally different
B. Structurally different but functionally similar
C. Structurally and functionally similar
D. Structurally similar but functionally different
EXPLANATION
The correct option is A. The mitochondria is a double-membraned cell organelle, known as the powerhouse of the cell which is present in all eukaryotic cells. It has an outer membrane and an inner membrane. 1) The inner mitochondrial membrane has folds called cristae which helps in increasing the surface area. The enzyme ATP synthase is embedded in the inner mitochondrial membrane helps in the synthesis of ATP molecule (energy currency of the cell). It is also the site of the electron transport chain (aerobic respiration). 2) The outer mitochondria membrane is a phospholipid bilayer embedded with integral proteins. This layer contains porins that allow the movement of molecules across them(10,000 Daltons or less). It is permeable to water, ions and few proteins to move freely into the inter mitochondrial space. So, the correct answer is Structurally and functionally dissimilar.

QUESTION: Butyric acid is derived from the word butyrum which means ______.
A. Milk
B. Butter
C. Cheese
D. None of these
EXPLANATION
The answer is B, because Butter is derived from the Latin word “Butyrum”.

QUESTION: Which of the statement is incorrect for XeO4?
A. Four pπ-dπ bonds are present
B. Four sp3- pσ bonds are present
C. It has a tetrahedral shape
D. It has a square planar shape
EXPLANATION
The Lewis structure of XeO4 is made up of one xenon atom and four oxygen atoms. There are double bonds between xenon and oxygen, with xenon being the central atom. This means there are 8 total bonding electrons. Square planar molecules are generally made up of 4 bonds and without any lone pairs.

QUESTION: An element or its compound is first _______ to get its _______ spectrum by spectrometer.
A. Freezed, continuous
B. Freezed, line
C. Volatilized, line
D. Volatilized, continuous
EXPLANATION
Answer: C Reason: For mass spectrometry, there are 4 steps. The first step is ionisation or volitisation. In this step, the molecules are vaporised. They are then accelerated, deflected and detected to produce a line spectrum. The spectrum produced cannot be a continuous spectrum as those are produced by thermal emission.

QUESTION: In Charless Law, volume of gas is directly related to which factor?
A. Pressure
B. Temperature
C. Volume
D. Number of moles
EXPLANATION
Answer: B Reason: Charles’s Law states that the volume occupied by a fixed amount of gas is directly proportional to its absolute temperature, if the pressure remains constant. Therefore, the correct answer is B.

QUESTION: The change in concentration of reactants or products per unit time is ___.
A. Rate constant
B. Reaction speed
C. Rate of a reaction
D. All of these
EXPLANATION
Answer: C Reason: Rate of reaction is defined as the change in concentration of reactants or products over time. Therefore, the answer is C.

QUESTION: The reactions that need energy are called ______.
A. Endothermic reactions
B. Exothermic reactions
C. Exergonic reactions
D. Heat releasing reactions
EXPLANATION
Answer: A Reason: Reactions that release energy into the environment are known as exothermic reactions. Exergonic reactions also release energy. Option D also states that heat (energy) is released in these reactions. If such reactions release energy, they have an excess of it, not a deficit. Therefore, endothermic reactions that take in energy must be the ones that need energy.

QUESTION: Which of the following element can form interstitial alloy with transition elements?
A. Zn
B. Mg
C. H
D. All of these
EXPLANATION
Answer: C Reason: Interstitial compounds are those where small elements fit into the empty spaces between the metal lattice. Zn and Mg both have relatively large atoms. Hydrogen atoms are small and able to fit between metal lattices.

QUESTION: Iodine has greater heat of sublimation then its family members due to presence of stronger ___.
A. H-bonding
B. London dispersion forces
C. Dipole-dipole force
D. Chemical bonding
EXPLANATION
Answer: B Reason: Iodine has the most number of electrons within its family. This means that it has the highest probability of having uneven distribution of electrons, which result in more instantaneous dipoles and therefore more London dispersion forces.

QUESTION: If n = 4 it will contain sub shells ___.
A. s
B. p
C. s, p, d
D. s, p, d, f
EXPLANATION
Answer: D Reason: n=4 has four shells. The first shell only has 2 electrons (s orbital). The second shell has 8 electrons (s and p orbitals). The third shell has 18 electrons (s, p and d orbitals). The fourth shell has 32 electrons (s, p, d and f orbitals). Therefore, the correct answer is D.

QUESTION: Which of the following product is formed when ethyl chloride reacts with alcoholic KOH?
A. C2H4
B. C2H5OH
C. C2H4ClOH
D. C2H6
EXPLANATION
Answer: A Reason: The formula for the reaction of ethyl chloride and alcoholic KOH is: C2H5Cl + KOH → C2H4 + KCl + H2O. Therefore, the correct answer is A.

QUESTION: The simplest member of organic compounds is ___.
A. Methanol
B. Methane
C. Formaldehyde
D. Formic acid
EXPLANATION
Answer: B Reason: Meth- is used in chemistry to correspond with 1. Alkanes are the simplest organic compounds as they only have carbon and hydrogen atoms. Therefore, methane is the smallest alkanes and thus the simplest.

QUESTION: Hydrolysis of Tertiary Butyl bromide is a _____.
A. First order reaction
B. Zero Order Reaction
C. Pseudo Second Order
D. Pseudo First Order
EXPLANATION
Answer: D Reason: Pseudo-first-order reactions are those which can be defined as second-order reactions that can be made to behave as the first order. Such reactions occur when one reacting material is present in great excess or is maintained at a constant concentration compared with the other substance. The water in the reaction is in excess and its concentration remains constant. Therefore, only the concentration of the tertiary butyl bromide affects the reaction rate. This means the reaction is pseudo-first order.

QUESTION: A liquid crystalline state exists between two temperatures i.e melting temperature and _____ temperature.
A. Boiling
B. Freezing
C. Clearing
D. All of these
EXPLANATION
Answer: C Reason: Recall that liquid crystalline states exist between the melting temperature and clearing temperature.

QUESTION: When light is exposed to transition elements then electrons jump from lower orbitals to higher orbitals in:
A. Orbitals of f-subshell
B. Orbitals of d-subshell
C. Orbitals of p-subshell
D. Both Options A and B are correct
EXPLANATION
Transition elements are d and f block elements, i.e. their valence shell configuration ends at the d or f block. When they are subjected to light and are in an excited state they would jump to higher energy orbits i.e. either subshells of d or f shells.

QUESTION: Compounds having more than one kind of atom in their ring are called ___.
A. Homocyclic compounds
B. Alicyclic Compounds
C. Heterocyclic compounds
D. None of these options are correct
EXPLANATION
Heterocyclic compounds are those that have at least two different elements as members of their rings.

QUESTION: As the time interval approaches zero, the average and instantaneous rate become:
A. Zero
B. Infinite
C. Same
D. Positive
EXPLANATION
As the time interval approaches zero, it becomes infinitesimally small. At this point, average and instantaneous rates are equal.

QUESTION: The hydrolysis of urea is catalyzed by ___.
A. Amylase
B. Urease
C. Pectin
D. None
EXPLANATION
Answer: B Reason: Urease is an enzyme which speeds up the hydrolysis of urea.

QUESTION: Who introduced the concept of macromolecules?
A. Runge
B. Maxwell
C. Staudinger
D. None of these
EXPLANATION
Answer: C Reason: Hermann Staudinger first coined the term macromolecule in the 1920s.

QUESTION: In NaCl crystal, chloride ions present at the face center are distributed in a ____.
A. 1 Unit Cell
B. 8 Unit Cells
C. 4 Unit Cells
D. 2 Unit Cells
EXPLANATION
In this structure, each corner ion is shared between eight unit cells, each ion a face of the cell by two cells, each ion on a edge by four cells and the ion inside the cell belongs entirely to that unit cell.

QUESTION: Which of the following alkyl halide give SN1 reactions?
A. 1-chloropropane
B. 2-chloropropane
C. n-butyl chloride
D. 2-methyl,2-chloropropane
EXPLANATION
Answer: D Reason: Only the 2-methyl and 2-chloropropane undergo the 2-step SN1 reaction while the 1-chloropropane, 2-chloropropane and n-butyl chloride do not.

QUESTION: Which of the following pairs shows hydrogen bonding among them?
A. Ammonia and Carbon
B. Acetone and Kerosine
C. Acetone and Chloroform
D. Water and Neon
EXPLANATION
A hydrogen bond is formed when an electropositive hydrogen atom has an electron density that is getting pulled by an electronegative atom. Due to three chlorine atoms on chloroform, the carbon becomes partially positive, so it pulls electron density away from the H atom to balance the electron distribution, thereby making the H partially positive instead. Hence the partially negative oxygen atom of acetone interacts to form hydrogen bonding.

QUESTION: Electrons can revolve only in those orbits having _______ angular momentum which depends on its ________ number.
A. Variable, quantum
B. Fixed, principal
C. Fixed, quantum
D. Variable, principal
EXPLANATION
Electrons have a fixed region where they can be found and this is determined by the quantum number.

QUESTION: 27 g of Al will react with how much mass of O2 to produce Al2O3?
A. 8g of oxygen
B. 16g of oxygen
C. 32g of oxygen
D. 24g of oxygen
EXPLANATION
Answer: D Reason: Al has a molar mass of 27. This means that 1 mole of Al is used in the reaction. First, we must balance the equation to form: 4Al + 3O2 → 2Al2O3. This means for every 4 moles of aluminium, 3 moles of oxygen are used. So for 1 mole of aluminium, 0.75 moles of oxygen are used. 0.75 of 32 is 24. Therefore, 24g of oxygen is used.

QUESTION: Which one of the following is larger in size than the oxygen atom?
A. Fluorine
B. Nitrogen
C. Hydrogen
D. Neon
EXPLANATION
Answer: B Reason: Atomic radius decreases across a period and increases down a group. Only nitrogen satisfies this requirement.

QUESTION: During the nomenclature of Alkyl halides, halogens are named as ____.
A. Substituents
B. Parent name
C. Ligand
D. Longest chain
EXPLANATION
Answer: A Reason: It is a fact. The halogen in alkyl halides is treated just like any alkyl substituent, meaning it has no priority over the carbon atoms. The parent chain(s) are still numbered in a way to give the lowest possible number(s) for the substituents.

QUESTION: If the pressure and volume of a gas are variable while the temperature remains constant, this belongs to _____.
A. Charless law
B. Boyles Law
C. Avogadros law
D. Pascals law
EXPLANATION
Answer: B Reason: Boyle’s Law states that pressure is inversely proportional to the volume of a gas while temperature remains constant.

QUESTION: In order to get absolute alcohol the following is added to absorb moisture:
A. MgO
B. CaO
C. CO2
D. Cl2
EXPLANATION
Answer: B Reason: Quicklime (CaO) absorbs water from alcohols, where it opens up its double bonds and connects to two water molecules.

QUESTION: The electrolysis of aqueous solutions of salt is complex because of the ability of water ____.
A. To vaporize
B. To be oxidize and reduce simultaneously
C. To form hydrogen bonds
D. All of these
EXPLANATION
Answer: B Reason: Water is able to both be reduced to hydrogen gas and oxidized to oxygen gas.

QUESTION: The shape of a crystal in which it usually grows is called its ___.
A. Size
B. Capacity
C. Habit
D. Property
EXPLANATION
Answer: C Reason: As defined, habit is the shape of crystal in which it usually grows. This is because crystals are usually obtained by cooling the saturated solution or by slow cooking of the liquid substance. When conditions for growing such crystals are maintained, the shape of the crystals stay the same.

QUESTION: Which one of the following is not an example of state function?
A. Temperature (T)
B. Volume (V)
C. Enthalpy (E)
D. Heat (Q)
EXPLANATION
Answer: D Reason: State functions are properties whose value doesn’t depend on the path taken to reach that specific value. Temperature, Volume and Enthalpy are all state functions, while heat is not.

QUESTION: The activation energy for forward and reverse reaction can be lowered by ____.
A. Lowering temperature
B. Decreasing pressure
C. A catalyst
D. All of these
EXPLANATION
Answer: C Reason: Catalysts are substances that lower the activation energy which results in an increase in rate of reaction.

QUESTION: 1st series of transition elements start from ____.
A. Sc
B. Y
C. La
D. Cd
EXPLANATION
Answer: A Reason: The first series of transition metals starts from period 3 and group 3. This is Sc.

QUESTION: Melting and boiling point of liquids depend upon the ______.
A. Motion of liquid molecules
B. Intermolecular forces between the molecules
C. Kinetic energy of the molecules
D. Mass of the molecules
EXPLANATION
Answer: B Reason: Intermolecular forces between molecules affect the melting and boiling points of liquids. More intermolecular forces mean that more energy is needed to break the bonds, and therefore the melting and boiling points are higher.

QUESTION: In IUPAC nomenclature, ketones are named _____.
A. Alkanol
B. Alkanal
C. Alkanone
D. Alkyl halides
EXPLANATION
Answer: C Reason: Ketones are also known as alkanones.

QUESTION: The rate of diffusion of liquids is ________ than gases.
A. Lower
B. Higher
C. Equal to
D. All of these
EXPLANATION
Answer: A Reason: Liquids are able to move around freely so they have a higher rate of diffusion than solids. However, gases have no definite shape or volume so they are able to move around even more freely. This means they have a higher rate of diffusion than liquids.

QUESTION: During the SN mechanism, nucleophiles can attack the halogen carbon ________.
A. From opposite side of leaving group
B. From front of leaving group
C. From both sides
D. None of these
EXPLANATION
Answer: C Reason: Reactants in SN1 mechanisms are those which are able to be attacked from both sides. This allows for stereoscopic molecules which consist of the same elements but in different positions.

QUESTION: An atom is composed of electrons, protons, neutrons and ___.
A. Hyperon
B. Neutrino
C. Anti-neutrino
D. All of these options are correct
EXPLANATION
Atoms have electrons, protons, neutrons, hyperons, neutrinos, and anti-neutrinos.

QUESTION: The general name of the ore CaSO4.H2O is ____.
A. Gypsum
B. Dolomite
C. Calcite
D. Plaster of Paris
EXPLANATION
CaSO4.H2O is also known as gypsum.

QUESTION: Proteins also contain the following bond(s):
A. Covalent
B. Ionic
C. Hydrogen
D. All of these options are correct
EXPLANATION
Hydrogen Bonds can be found in proteins as they have Hydrogens attached to either Nitrogen in amine group or Oxygen in the carboxylic group. This enables Hydrogen bonding among Hydrogen-Nitrogen and Hydrogen-Oxygen.

QUESTION: Intervening electrons have a negative charge which repulses other electrons and ________ attraction b/w nucleus and electrons.
A. Blocks
B. Reduces
C. Increases
D. Enhances
EXPLANATION
Answer: B Reason: Electrons within an atom shield electrons outside of them, from the attractions of the positive nucleus thus reducing the attraction.

QUESTION: What is the IUPAC name of isopropyl alcohol?
A. 2-propanol
B. 1- propanol
C. 2 - ethanol
D. 2 - propane-1-ot
EXPLANATION
Answer: A Reason: Isopropyl alcohol is another name for 2-propanol.

QUESTION: The boiling point of carboxylic acids are high due to _____.
A. Polarity of carbonyl group
B. Due to methyl group
C. Due to H-Bonding
D. Due London forces
EXPLANATION
Answer: C Reason: Hydrogen bonding occurs in carboxylic acids due to the presence of oxygen and hydrogen. This bond is relatively stronger than bonds such as London dispersion forces and thus requires more energy to be broken. More energy means more heat, and therefore a higher boiling point.

QUESTION: Increasing the concentration of the substance on reactant shifts the equilibrium to ____.
A. Backward direction
B. Forward Direction
C. Higher concentration
D. None of these
EXPLANATION
Answer: B Reason: When more reactants are added, there is a greater chance that they will collide with the correct orientation and energy higher than the activation energy. This means there is a higher chance of a successful reaction. Therefore, more products would be formed and thus the rate of reaction for the forward direction would be increased. This means that the equilibrium will also shift to the forward direction.

QUESTION: If 9.8 g of sulfuric acid is dissolved in an excess quantity of water, it will yield _______ moles of hydrogen ion ( H+) and _______ mole of sulphate ions (SO4 -2).
A. 0.1, 0.2
B. 0.1, 0.3
C. 0.2, 0.4
D. 0.2, 0.1
EXPLANATION
Answer: D Reason: Sulfuric acid has a molar mass of approximately 98. Therefore, 9.8g of sulfuric acid would be approximately 0.1 moles. The equation by which sulfuric acid dissolves in water is: H2SO4 + H2O → HSO4- + H+. After which, further dissociation occurs producing: HSO4- + H2O → SO4 2- + 2H+. The overall equation would then be: H2SO4 + H2O → SO4 2- + 2H+. Using this final equation, we can see that the ratio of sulfuric acid to sulphate ions is 1:1 while sulfuric acid to hydrogen ions is 1:2. Therefore, the number of moles would be 0.1 for sulphate ions and 0.2 for hydrogen ions.

QUESTION: First step in the SN, reaction is _______.
A. Dehydration
B. Protonation
C. Ionization
D. Attack of nucleophile and departure of leaving group
EXPLANATION
Answer: C Reason: In the SN1 mechanism, first the reacting group leaves the molecule, thus forming an ion (ionisation). Once this has occurred, the nucleophile then reacts with the molecule.

QUESTION: Which of the following shows maximum boiling point?
A. Primary alcohol
B. Secondary alcohol
C. Tertiary alcohol
D. All of above
EXPLANATION
Answer: A Reason: Primary alcohols have the most exposed OH groups. This means that they are more readily able to form hydrogen bonds. Hydrogen bonds need more energy to be broken and therefore more heat. This results in a higher boiling point.

QUESTION: Which one of them is a good conductor of electricity?
A. Ionic solids
B. Molecular solids
C. Network covalent solids
D. Metallic solids
EXPLANATION
Answer: D Reason: Metallic solids have a sea of delocalised electrons. This allows them to carry charge efficiently across themselves.

QUESTION: As the hydrolysis of ester proceeds, more and more acid is formed giving a ___.
A. Rising curve
B. Falling Curve
C. Straight line
D. None of these options is correct
EXPLANATION
Due to more ester being present initially, the rate of reaction would be high at the beginning and as time proceeds, it would slow down. Thus producing a rising curve.

QUESTION: The half-life period for a first-order reaction is independent of ___.
A. Conditions of temperature
B. Initial Concentration of the compound
C. Presence of Catalyst
D. All of these
EXPLANATION
Answer: B Reason: The length of a half-life will be constant, independent of concentration for first-order reactions. It takes the same amount of time for the concentration to decrease from one point to another point, which is why half-life is independent of initial concentration for the first order.

QUESTION: Which of the following compounds is sold as fertilizer?:
A. CaSiO3
B. Na2SiO3
C. Ca3(PO4)2
D. MnSiO3
EXPLANATION
Calcium phosphate is a common ingredient in many fertilizers. Calcium and phosphate are two important soil nutrients and this compound provides both substances.

QUESTION: In case of oxidation of symmetrical ketone, which of the following products are formed?
A. One Carboxylic acid
B. Mixture of different carboxylic acids
C. Same type of carboxylic acids
D. None of these
EXPLANATION
Answer: B Reason: Only one type of cleavage can occur. This means that the products of such a reaction are unevenly split. This forms two different carboxylic acids.

QUESTION: Which one of the following alkali metals forms only normal oxide when it reacts with O2?
A. Lithium
B. Sodium
C. Potassium
D. Rubidium
EXPLANATION
Lithium only forms normal oxides when burnt with oxygen while other alkali metals form peroxides or superoxides.

QUESTION: The flavour of orange is due to the presence of _______ ester.
A. Benzyl Acetate
B. Octyl Acetate
C. Amyl Butyrate
D. Ethyl Butyrate
EXPLANATION
Answer: B Reason: Benzyl acetate smells flowery, Amyl butyrate smells like apricot and ethyl butyrate smells like pineapple. Octyl acetate smells like oranges, therefore, B is correct.

QUESTION: Ethyne has which hybridization?
A. sp3
B. sp2
C. sp
D. sp2d
EXPLANATION
Answer: C Reason: Ethyne is sp hybridized because it has one sigma and two carbon-carbon pi bonds.

QUESTION: What is the value of universal gas constant in S.I. units?
A. 8.314Jmol-1K-1
B. 8.314 dm3 atm mol-lK-1
C. 0.0821dm3 atm mol-1 K-1
D. 0.0821Jmol-1K-1
EXPLANATION
Answer: A Reason: The universal gas constant value is 8.314 Jmol-1K-1.

QUESTION: Most of the enzyme reactions are ________.
A. Reversible
B. Irreversible
C. Condensation
D. Oxidation
EXPLANATION
Answer: A Reason: Reactions of enzymes are mostly reversible depending on the extent to which the products differ from the reactants.

QUESTION: Photocopier and ink-jet printer are applications of ____.
A. Electrostatics
B. Magnetism
C. Thermal physics
D. Quantum physics
EXPLANATION
Printers and photocopiers use the phenomena of electrostatics in their working, as a field of positive charges is accumulated on the surface of the paper which is printed.

QUESTION: Which particle has dual nature?
A. Photon
B. Alpha
C. Electron
D. All of these
EXPLANATION
Photon, Alpha and Electron- all have dual nature, which means that they can act as a particle and a wave both. They can undergo electron diffraction which is a wave property, alongside photoelectric effect which proves their particulate nature.

QUESTION: In fission reactions when the nucleus breaks, heat energy is ____.
A. Released
B. Absorbed
C. Reflected
D. Any of these
EXPLANATION
Fission reactions involve the breakdown of the nucleus to form smaller nuclei. This process releases a huge amount of thermal energy.

QUESTION: Centrifuge is used to purify ___.
A. U
B. H
C. O
D. N
EXPLANATION
Prominent uses of gas centrifugation is for the separation of Uranium-235 and Uranium-238.

QUESTION: What is the relationship between power, urrent and voltage?
A. P=V/I
B. P=VI
C. 2P=l+V
D. All of them
EXPLANATION
Power is defined as the energy used when a charge of 1 coulomb passes through the potential difference of V in every second i.e P= IV.

QUESTION: As the wavelength of light used increases, the distance between bright fringes in the interference pattern ____.
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remains same
D. None of these
EXPLANATION
According to the formula, dsin(θ)=nλ, as wavelength increases so does the angle of diffraction, which leads to an increase in the distance between the bright fringes.

QUESTION: For given applied voltage, what will happen if we increase frequency of the applied voltage?
A. Eddy current loss will decrease
B. Eddy current loss will increase
C. Eddy current loss will remain unchanged
D. None of these
EXPLANATION
As the applied voltage does not change, the increased frequency has no effect on the eddy currents thus their loss will remain unchanged.

QUESTION: When a charged particle enters the magnetic field perpendicular to the velocity of charge, the followed path is _____.
A. Circular
B. Parabolic
C. Elliptical
D. hyperbolic
EXPLANATION
The velocity of the electron is always constant and since it enters perpendicular to the magnetic field, the magnetic force provides the centripetal force and the path of the electron is circular.

QUESTION: Work done on a ceiling fan by gravity is _____.
A. Maximum
B. Zero
C. Minimum
D. Infinity
EXPLANATION
The net / resultant forces that act on the ceiling fan are zero.

QUESTION: An electron is moving along the line of force in magnetic field B with velocity u, then the maximum force acting on the charge is given by _____.
A. Bue
B. Bq/u
C. Bu/q
D. Zero
EXPLANATION
The electron moves along the line of force i.e it is parallel to the magnetic field so the force will be zero.

QUESTION: Ohms law is true for:
A. Metallic conductors at low temperature
B. Metallic conductors at high temperature
C. For electrolytes, when current passes through them
D. For diode when current flows
EXPLANATION
It is a known fact that Ohm’s law is true for metallic conductors at low temperature.

QUESTION: UV radiation is formed by bombarding gas molecules with ____.
A. Electrons
B. Protons
C. Alpha rays
D. Any of these
EXPLANATION
As gas molecules bombard with an electron, they lose their electrons and become positively charged ions, which results in the formation of UV radiations.

QUESTION: Acceleration of a moving car when brakes are applied is ____.
A. Negative
B. zero
C. Positive
D. Infinite
EXPLANATION
When the car is moving, it applies a positive acceleration but when the brakes are applied, according to Newton’s third law- the acceleration is now in the opposite direction thus it is negative. Negative acceleration is also called deceleration.

QUESTION: Two bodies of mass m and 4m are moving with the same kinetic energy. The ratio of momentum will be:
A. 4:1
B. 1:1
C. 1:4
D. 1:2
EXPLANATION
Reference https://brainly.in/question/1698926

QUESTION: A gas expands from V1 to V2. The amount of work done is greatest in ____.
A. Adiabatic
B. Isobaric
C. lsochoric
D. Isothermal
EXPLANATION
In isobaric conditions, the pressure is constant therefore as gas expands, the work done is entirely due to the expansion and is the maximum.

QUESTION: Coulombs law is only applicable for ____.
A. Big charges
B. Small charges
C. Point charges
D. Any charges
EXPLANATION
The only limitation of Coulomb’s law is that is it applicable for point charges i.e the charge is located at a single point in space.

QUESTION: The ripple factor of half-wave rectifier is ___.
A. 1.21
B. 0.8
C. 0.6
D. 0.4
EXPLANATION
The ripple factor of half wave rectifier is equal to 1.21 (this value should be memorized).

QUESTION: An object is displaced from point A (0,1, 1) m to point B (1,4,3) m under a constant force F=( i+2j+3k). Find the work done by this force in this process.
A. 13 J
B. 15 J
C. Zero
D. -13 J
EXPLANATION
.

QUESTION: Magnetic Force between two wires is inversely proportional to ____.
A. Distance
B. Current on them
C. Charge on them
D. None of these
EXPLANATION
Magnetic force is directly proportional to the product of two masses and inversely proportional to the the distance.

QUESTION: The total charge on any nucleus is ____.
A. Ne
B. Wq
C. Ze
D. Ne
EXPLANATION
The proton number of a nucleus is equal to the atomic number, therefore if the proton has a charge of ‘e’ then then total charge of nucleus is ‘Ze’.

QUESTION: Which of these is conserved in solar cells?
A. Momentum
B. Charge
C. Mass
D. All of these options are correct
EXPLANATION
The light energy is converted to electrical energy in solar cells, while momentum is conserved.

QUESTION: Which principle is used in solar cells?
A. Momentum
B. Charge
C. Mass
D. All of these
EXPLANATION
The light energy is converted to electrical energy in solar cells, while momentum is conserved.

QUESTION: Which of the following rectifier uses a wheatstone bridge to rectify the signal:
A. Half wave
B. Full wave
C. Bridge
D. All of the above options are correct
EXPLANATION
A bridge rectifier is formed by connecting four diodes in the form of a Wheatstone bridge. It also provides full-wave rectification. During the first half of the AC cycle, two diodes are forward biased and during the second half of the AC cycle, the other two diodes become forward biased.

QUESTION: You have three capacitors, each of 2 μC. In which of the following combinations of the three capacitors, is the resultant capacitance 3μC?
A. All three capacitors in series
B. Two capacitors are in series, one in parallel
C. Two capacitors are in parallel, one in series
D. All three capacitors in parallel
EXPLANATION
The capacitance in series is going to be capacitance = ½ + ½ = 1, so the total capacitance is 1 + 2 = 3.

QUESTION: The hot resistance of the bulbs filament is higher than its cold resistance because the temperature coefficient of the filament is ____.
A. Zero
B. Negative
C. Positive
D. About 2 ohms per degree
EXPLANATION
As the temperature increases, more photons and electrons collide so the resistance increases too.

QUESTION: The projectile motion of an object on earth is always ____.
A. Linear
B. Parabolic
C. Cubic
D. Inverse
EXPLANATION
The horizontal velocity is always constant and the vertical position of an object is influenced by the constant acceleration. thus the projectile motion is parabolic.

QUESTION: A point on a wheel has a constant angular velocity of 3 rad/s. The angle turned through in 15 seconds is ___.
A. 45 rad
B. 10π rad5 rad
C. 9π rad
D. 5 rad
EXPLANATION
The angle is 3 x 15 = 45 rad.

QUESTION: If a car moves with a uniform speed of 2ms-1 in a circle of radius 0.4, its angular speed is ___.
A. 4 rads-1
B. 5 rads-1
C. 1.6 rads-1
D. 2.8 rads-1
EXPLANATION
The angular speed is found by dividing the linear speed with the radius so 2/0.4 = 5.

QUESTION: An object is moving in a circle. It completes 6 revolutions in every 3 seconds. What is its frequency?
A. 0.5π Hz
B. 2π Hz
C. 0.5 Hz
D. 2 Hz
EXPLANATION
The frequency is found by dividing the number of revolutions per 3 seconds so 6/3 = 2 Hz.

QUESTION: Existence of photon was confirmed by:
A. Compton
B. De broglie
C. Einstein
D. Max planck
EXPLANATION
Arthur Holly Compton discovered the existence of photons after they interact with electrons.

QUESTION: A black body is considered ideal when it ____.
A. Emits all radiation
B. Absorbs all radiation
C. Both A and B
D. None of these
EXPLANATION
An ideal black body is one that absorbs and emits all the incident electromagnetic radiation.

QUESTION: Which of the following blocks will release heat fast:
A. Rough white surface
B. Polished white surface
C. Rough black surface
D. Polished black surface
EXPLANATION
Black is a good absorber and poor transmitter, whereas a rough surface reflects light rays in all directions, thus a rough black surface will release heat fastest.

QUESTION: Ohms law is not applicable to:
A. Semiconductors
B. D.C. circuits
C. Small resistors
D. High currents
EXPLANATION
Semi conductor do not have linear properties so they do not follow Ohm’s law.

QUESTION: Energy stored inside the inductor is given by ____.
A. (1/2)LI^2
B. LI^2
C. (3/2)Ll^2
D. LI
EXPLANATION
The formula to find out the energy stored in an inductor is; ½ L (I^2) where ‘I’ is the current.

QUESTION: In Youngs double-slit experiment, fringe spacing increases if _______.
A. Red light is used as compared to blue light
B. X-ray is used as compared to blue light
C. Violet light is used as compared to blue light
D. Ultraviolet light is used as compared to blue light
EXPLANATION
Red light has a longer wavelength so according to the formula, dsin(θ)=nλ, as the wavelength increases so does the angle of diffraction, which in turn increases the fringe spacing.

QUESTION: The distance between two consecutive nodes in a stationary wave is equal to:
A. One wavelength
B. 2.5 wavelength
C. 3 wavelength
D. Half wavelength
EXPLANATION
The distance from one node to another in a stationary wave is ½ wavelength.

QUESTION: The internal energy change in the system that has absorbed 2kcal of heat and done 500J of work is ____.
A. 8900J
B. 8800J
C. 7900J
D. 7500J
EXPLANATION
According to 1st law of thermodynamics, U = Q-W (Note that 1 cal is equal to 4.2). U= 2 x 4.2 x (1000-500)  U= 7900 J

QUESTION: The speed of waves depends upon the ______.
A. Tension of the string
B. Tension and mass per unit length of the string
C. Diameter of the string
D. Mass per unit length of the string
EXPLANATION
The diameter of a string is negligible, hence its speed depends on the tension and mass per unit length of the string.

QUESTION: What will be the decay constant of substance whose half life is 1 hour. Give your answer in (sec^-1).
A. 1925
B. 0.001925
C. 0.0001925
D. 0.01925
EXPLANATION
Decay constant is found by dividing 0.693 by the time period i.e 0.693 / 3600 which gives us 1.925 x 10^-4.

QUESTION: Consider a peak rectifier fed by a 60-Hz sinusoid having a peak value Vp = 100 V. Let the load resistance R = 10 kCl. Calculate the fraction of the cycle during which the diode is conducting.
A. 1.06 %
B. 2.06%
C. 3.18%
D. 4.82%
EXPLANATION
w Δt ~ √(2Vr/Vp) = √(2 X 2/100)  = 3.18% of the cycle

QUESTION: Currents changing with time will produce ______ field.
A. Electrostatic
B. Magnetostatic
C. Electromagnetic
D. None of these
EXPLANATION
A changing current produces magnetic field due to change in magnetic flux.

QUESTION: An ideal gas has a volume of 20 ml, a temperature of 10 •C and a pressure of 100 kPa. The volume of the gas is reduced to 10 ml and the temperature is raised to 20 •C. What is the new pressure of the gas?
A. 370 kPa
B. 207 kPa
C. 400 kPa
D. 27 kPa
EXPLANATION
An ideal gas follows: PV = nRT or PV= T  PV / T = constant so we equate PV / T with the new PV/T (Note that ml is equal to cm^3 so conversion is not needed)  100 x 20 / (273+10) = P x 10 / (273+ 20)  So the new Pressure (P) comes out to be 207 kPa.

QUESTION: When white light is used in the Double-Slit experiment then ____.
A. Non interference fringes observed
B. Only central bright fringe is observed
C. Only red and white fringes are observed
D. Central bright and few coloured fringes are observed
EXPLANATION
White light splits into a central bright fringe with coloured fringes on both sides.

QUESTION: A force F = (0.5x + 10) N acts on a particle, calculate the work done by the force in displacing particle from x = 0 to x = 2 m.
A. 20 J
B. 21 J
C. 23 J
D. 22 J
EXPLANATION
Force is (0.5x + 10) which when multiplied by 2 gives us 21.

QUESTION: In a centre tap full wave rectifier, if Vm is the peak voltage across the secondary transformer, the maximum voltage across reverse bias is ____.
A. Vm
B. Vm/√2
C. 2Vm
D. Vm/3
EXPLANATION
The maximum voltage across reverse bias is twice that of Vm so it is going to be 2Vm.

QUESTION: The resistivity of a wire is _____ ohm-m if 0.75 A current flows through it by applying 1.5 V potential difference, take length and cross-section as 5m and 2.5 x 10^-7 m^2.
A. 1 x 10^-7
B. 2.63 X 10^-8
C. 19 X 10^-8
D. 7.85 x 10^-8
EXPLANATION
First we find out the resistance using the formula V = IR. So R = V / I i.e 1.5 / 0.75 = 2. Then we find out the resistivity using the formula ( R = resistivity x length / area), inserting the values in thequestion gives us the answer as 1 x 10^-7.

QUESTION: How much energy is required to raise the temperature of 5.00 kg of lead from 20.0•c to its melting point of 327°C? The specific heat of lead is 128 J/kg ?•c.
A. 1.96 x 10^5 J
B. 4.04 X 10^5 J
C. 1.07 X 10^5 J
D. 8.15 x 10^4 J
EXPLANATION
Energy is calculated using the formula, Q = mc∆T. So energy = 5 x (327-20) x 128 = 1.96 x 10^5 J.

QUESTION: Uranium-238 forms thorium-234 after radioactive decay and has a half-life of 4.5 x 109 years. How many years will it take to decay 75% of the initial amount?
A. 9 x 109 years
B. 4 x 109 years
C. 9 x 1010 years
D. 4 x 1010 years
EXPLANATION
Since 75% of initial amount is decayed, we are left with 25%.

QUESTION: The phase angle between two points is 3 pi. The distance between these points is 15 cm. What is the wavelength of the wave?
A. 30 cm
B. 45 cm
C. 5 cm
D. 10 cm
EXPLANATION
3 pi gives 15 cm, So 2 pi is equal to ‘x’, cross multiplying the values gives us x as 10 cm.

QUESTION: A circular loop of area 0.05 m2 rotates in a uniform magnetic field of 0.2 T. If the loop rotates about its diameter which is perpendicular to the magnetic field, find the flux linked with the loop when its plane is normal to the field.
A. 0.01 Wb
B. 0 Wb
C. 8.66 x 10-3 Wb
D. 0.86 Wb
EXPLANATION
The magnetic flux is the magnetic field multiplied by the area i.e 0.2 x 0.05 = 0.01 Wb.

QUESTION: Instantaneous velocity for a displacement function d(t)= 2 - 2t at any time is given by ___.
A. -2t
B. 2t
C. 2
D. -2
EXPLANATION
Solution would involve the mathematical use of differentiation. Change in displacement i.e. d(s) is essentially velocity. Since we have the given function of displacement, in terms of time, s= d(t)= 2 - 2t, differentiating this would give us; d(s) = 2(0) t0-1 - 2(1) t1-1 d(s) = 0 - 2 t0; Since anything to power zero is one, the answer comes out to be d(s) = instantaneous velocity = -2

QUESTION: A galvanometer acting as a voltmeter will have a coil with ____.
A. A high resistance in parallel
B. A high resistance in series
C. A low resistance in parallel
D. A low resistance in series
EXPLANATION
It will have a high resistance is connected in series, so that less current passes through voltmeter.

QUESTION: Find angular acceleration when dw is 250 rpm and dt is 5.00 s.
A. 5.24 rad/sec^2
B. 6 rad/sec^2
C. 10 rad/sec^2
D. None of these
EXPLANATION
.

QUESTION: The shortest distance between two points on a travelling wave that have a phase difference of (pi/3) is 5 cm. If the wave has frequency 500 Hz, what is the speed of the wave?
A. 300 m/s
B. 150 m/s
C. 300 cm/s
D. 150 cm/s
EXPLANATION
.

QUESTION: A material is made with two different shapes; which surface will absorb more heat in less time?
A. Rectangular shape of larger area
B. Circular shape of smaller area
C. Both will absorb the same heat
D. Heat absorption is independent of th shape of the material
EXPLANATION
Heat transfer rate is directly proportional to the available surface area for heat transfer, since rectangular shape has larger surface area it will absorb more heat.

QUESTION: A reversible carnot engine converts 1/6th of heat into input work. When the temperature of the sink is reduced by 62 degrees C then efficiency is doubled then the temperature of the source and sink is ____.
A. 80 C ,37 C
B. 99 C , 30C
C. 99C,25C
D. 99C , 37C
EXPLANATION
Reference https://www.doubtnut.com/question-answer-physics/a-reversible-engine-converts-one-sixth-of-the-heat-input-into-work-when-the-temperature-of-the-sink--109749482

QUESTION: What is similar to the word: Bonus
A. Reward
B. Raise
C. Employer
D. Cash
EXPLANATION
A bonus is something given or paid beyond what is usual or expected, so the reward is the essential element. A bonus may not involve a raise in pay or cash, and it may be received from someone other than an employer.

QUESTION: Statements:  All fish are tortoises. No tortoise is a crocodile.  Conclusions: I. No crocodile is a fish. II. No fish is a crocodile.
A. Only conclusion II follows
B. Either I or II follows
C. Neither I nor II follows
D. Both I and II follow
EXPLANATION
The first statement tells us that all fish are tortoises which tells us that no crocodiles are fish hence conclusion one is correct.  The second conclusion also reiterates the same thing thus both conclusions follow.

QUESTION: A thermometer is to temperature as a compass is to ___.
A. Pressure
B. Humidity
C. Direction
D. Needle
EXPLANATION
The instrument to measure something is a calliper, so we need to find the instrument to find a direction which is the compass.

QUESTION: Statements: Pakistan is a multilingual country. Urdu is the national language of Pakistan. Conclusions: (l) AII Pakistanis should learn many languages. (ll) To be a Pakistani one needs to learn Urdu.
A. Only conclusion (I) follows
B. Only conclusion (II) follows
C. Both conclusions follow
D. Both of the conclusions do not follow
EXPLANATION
The statement nowhere tells us that Pakistanis should learn several languages, it just states that many languages are spoken in Pakistan.  Furthermore, just because Urdu is the national language, it doesn’t mean that a person who doesn’t know it isn’t a Pakistani. Hence both statements do not follow.

QUESTION: Chef: Restaurant.
A. Doctor: Nurse
B. Driver: Passenger
C. Teacher: School
D. Writer: Editor
EXPLANATION
A chef works in a restaurant, and the teacher works in a school. Doctor and nurse are both workers and the pattern is an employee and their workplace.

QUESTION: Statements:  I. The government has recently fixed the fees for professional courses offered by the unaided institutions which are much lower than the fees charged last year.  II. The parents of the aspiring students launched a severe agitation last year protesting against the high fees charged by the unaided institutions.
A. Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect
B. Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
C. Both statements I and II are independent causes
D. Both statements I and II are effects of independent causes
EXPLANATION
The parents protest against high fees being charged by the institutions led the government to interfere and fix the fees to a more affordable level.

QUESTION: Identify the number that follows the series. Look at this series: 53, 53, 40, 40, 27, 27, ...  What number should come next?
A. 12
B. 14
C. 27
D. 53
EXPLANATION
There is a difference of 13 after every 2 numbers. 27-13 is 14, hence the answer is Option B.

QUESTION: Which is the largest ocean in the world?
A. Atlantic ocean
B. Pacific ocean
C. Arctic ocean
D. Indian ocean
EXPLANATION
The Pacific Ocean is the largest and deepest of the world ocean basins. Covering approximately 63 million square miles and containing more than half of the free water on Earth.

QUESTION: Statement: Without reforming the entire administrative system, we cannot eradicate corruption and prejudice from society.  Assumptions:  I. The existence of corruption and prejudice is good. II. There is enough flexibility to change the administrative system.
A. Only assumption I is implicit
B. Only assumption II is implicit
C. Either I or II is implicit
D. Both Options A and B are correct
EXPLANATION
The statement talks of eradicating corruption and prejudice from society, which indicates that these aspects are undesirable. So, assumption I is not implicit.  Besides, the statement mentions about reforming the administrative system. So, assumption II is implicit.

QUESTION: Complete the series B2CD, _____, BCD4, B5CD, BC6D.
A. B2C2D
B. BC3D
C. B2C3D
D. BCD7
EXPLANATION
Because the letters are the same, concentrate on the number series, which is a simple 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 series, which follows each letter in order.

QUESTION: Ohms law is applicable to ___.
A. Semiconductors
B. Vacuum tubes
C. Carbon resistors
D. None of these
EXPLANATION
Ohm’s law is only applicable to conductors, thus none of the options are correct except D.

QUESTION: When an ideal gas of constant mass is heated in a container of fixed volume. What is the reason for the increase in pressure of the gas?
A. Number of molecules per unit volume increases
B. Molecules occupy a greater volume of the container
C. Average force per impact at the container wall increases
D. Molecules collide with each other with greater force
EXPLANATION
In an ideal gas, the pressure is due to the collisions of the gas molecules with the container. Thus as the force with which the gas molecules hit the walls increases, so does the pressure.

QUESTION: The acceleration is a ___.
A. Vector quantity
B. Scalar quantity
C. Dimensionless quantity
D. None of these
EXPLANATION
Acceleration is a vector quantity as it has direction and magnitude both.

QUESTION: In a stationary wave, the distance between a node and an adjacent antinode is equal to ___.
A. π
B. 2π
C. π/2
D. π/4
EXPLANATION
The distance between successive nodes is half wavelength whereas the distance between a node and an antinode is quarter of a wavelength.

QUESTION: Which of the following is the same for isotopes?
A. Neutrons
B. Protons
C. Nucleons
D. All of them
EXPLANATION
Isotopes are atoms of an element with the same proton number but a different nucleon number.

QUESTION: What is the S.I. unit of radioactivity?
A. Curie
B. Rutherford
C. Becquerel
D. All of these
EXPLANATION
Radioactivity is measured in units of Bq i.e Becquerel.

QUESTION: Which rays have highest mass
A. Alpha rays
B. Beta rays
C. Gamma rays
D. None of these
EXPLANATION
Alpha rays have the highest mass since they have 2 protons and 2 neutrons. The mass of Beta is equal to an electron while gamma rays have negligible mass.

QUESTION: Magnetic flux is given by the ___.
A. Dot product of magnetic field and area vector
B. Cross product of magnetic field and area vector
C. Both of these
D. None of these
EXPLANATION
Magnetic flux is the dot product of magnetic field and the area, providing that it is perpendicular to the field.

QUESTION: For atomic spectra, atomic gas or vapor at pressure which is much ___ than atmospheric pressure is excited.
A. Greater
B. Greater than equal to
C. Less
D. None of these
EXPLANATION
The atomic gas has to be at a lesser pressure than the atmospheric pressure to be excited.

QUESTION: The waves which propagate by the oscillation of material particles are called ___.
A. Matter waves
B. Mechanical waves
C. Electromagnetic waves
D. Microwaves
EXPLANATION
This is the definition of a mechanical wave, hence a fact.

QUESTION: An object moves 20 m in 5 sec. What is the gradient of the displacement-time graph?
A. 25
B. 15
C. 4
D. 1/4
EXPLANATION
The displacement is found by dividing 20 meters by 5 seconds which gives us 4.

QUESTION: The minimum charge on an object can not be less than ____.
A. 1.6 x 10^-19 C
B. 9 x 10^9 C
C. 9.1 x 10^-31 C
D. 1.6 x 10^-27 C
EXPLANATION
The minimum charge has to be 1.60 × 10-19 coulombs.

QUESTION: A charge of 2C is travelling parallel to a magnetic field of 4T with 20 m/s. Calculate the net force on it.
A. 160N
B. 120N
C. 0N
D. 100N
EXPLANATION
The net force will always be zero when the charge particle is moving parallel with the magnetic field.

QUESTION: Req = R1 + R2 + R3 + ..... + Rn is the combination in ___.
A. Series
B. Parallel
C. Both of them
D. None of them
EXPLANATION
In series, the total req is the sum of all req’s.

QUESTION: If the peak to peak voltage is 10V, calculate the peak voltage.
A. 2V
B. 10V
C. 4V
D. 5V
EXPLANATION
5 + 5 gives the peak voltage of 10.

QUESTION: A horse is pulling a cart of mass 50 kg in the horizontal direction, if the distance travelled is 20 m then what will be the work done ___.
A. 1000 J
B. -1000 J
C. Zero
D. 500 J
EXPLANATION
Work done is zero as force is perpendicular to the distance moved.

QUESTION: A negative point charge is moving along a circular orbit around a positive point charge. Which aspect(s) of the electric force on the negative point charge will remain constant as it moves?
A. Direction
B. Magnitude
C. Both direction and magnitude
D. Neither direction and magnitude
EXPLANATION
The magnitude of the point charges is constant however, the direction changes as they have opposite signs.

QUESTION: Which element is used to absorb gamma radiations?
A. Co
B. Cl
C. Ni
D. P
EXPLANATION
Nickel (Ni) absorbs gamma rays.

QUESTION: Work done by gas, pressure and change in volume are related as:
A. PW=--ΔV
B. W=PΔV
C. W= P+ΔV
D. W= P-ΔV
EXPLANATION
Workdone is denoted by (W) = Pressure x Change in volume.

QUESTION: If the system goes from two different paths to same final state then change in internal energy for both systems is _____.
A. Same
B. Different
C. May be same
D. Not enough information
EXPLANATION
The change in internal energy is same as the final state is the same.

QUESTION: Numbers of electrons emitted in photoelectric effect depends upon ____.
A. Wavelength of incident light
B. Frequency of incident light
C. Energy of incident light
D. Intensity of incident light
EXPLANATION
The intensity of incident light determines the number of photons emitted from a surface, which in turn determine the number of electrons emitted.

QUESTION: A stationary source of sound produce wave of wavelength L and speed v. Now, the source moves away from the observer. What is the wavelength and speed of the sound as measured by the observer?
A. Wavelength decreases speed does not change
B. Wavelength increases speed does not change
C. Wavelength increases speed increases
D. Wavelength increases speed decreases
EXPLANATION
According to the formula λ = v/f, as the source moves away, the frequency decreases and since speed of sound is constant, it leads to an increase in the wavelength.

QUESTION: A full wave rectifier passes _____ into positive cycles.
A. Lower half cycle
B. Upper half cycle
C. Both cycles
D. None of them
EXPLANATION
Both cycles are positive since the rectifier turns ac voltage into dc voltage.

QUESTION: Alternating Current Generators use ____.
A. Coiled rings
B. Split rings
C. Slip rings
D. Solenoid rings
EXPLANATION
AC generators use slip rings which help in rotation of coil.

QUESTION: In simple harmonic motion, which two quantities are always in opposite direction?
A. Kinetic energy and potential energy
B. Kinetic energy and velocity
C. Velocity and acceleration
D. Acceleration and displacement
EXPLANATION
Simple Harmonic Motion (SHM) is when acceleration is directly proportional to displacement and both act in opposite directions.

QUESTION: Which statement is incorrect?
A. In a isobaric process ΔP=0
B. In a isochoric process ΔW=0
C. In a isothermal process ΔT=0
D. In a isothermal process ΔQ=0
EXPLANATION
Isothermal process is one in which temperature remains constant so change in heat content cannot be zero.

QUESTION: International ohm is defined in terms of the resistance of ____.
A. A column of mercury
B. A cube of carbon
C. A cube of copper
D. The unit length of wire
EXPLANATION
It is a fact that column of mercury is used to define ohm in terms of resistance.

QUESTION: Work done is said to be negative if force and displacement are ___.
A. Parallel
B. Perpendicular
C. Anti parallel
D. None of these
EXPLANATION
When the direction of motion and force acting on body are opposite i.e anti parallel, the work done is said to be negative.

QUESTION: The core of earth is hot due to ____.
A. Fission reactions
B. Fusion reactions
C. Frictional forces
D. All of these
EXPLANATION
Frictional heat is released in the outer core of earth which makes it hot.

QUESTION: If a force of 2 N is applied on charge of 3 Coulomb, the electric field becomes ____.
A. 3/2 N/C
B. 2/3 N/C
C. 1/2 N/C
D. none of these
EXPLANATION
Electric force is calculated by the formula, F = Eq  So E i.e electrical field will be force divided by charge which is ⅔ N/C.

QUESTION: What will be the photon energy for a wavelength of 5000 angstroms, if the energy of a photon corresponding to a wavelength of 7000 angstroms is 4.23 x 10-19 J?
A. 0.456 eV
B. 5.879 eV
C. 3.701 eV
D. 1.6 x 10^-19 eV
EXPLANATION
Make sure to convert the energy from Joules to eV by dividing it with 1.6 x 10^-19.

QUESTION: A constant force of 10 N is applied on a body which causes displacement of 12 cm, what will be the work done?
A. 120 J
B. 12 J
C. 1.2 J
D. 18 J
EXPLANATION
Work done = Force x Distance moved.  = 10 x (0.12) = 1.2 J

QUESTION:  In step down transformer _____ is decreased in secondary coils.
A. Electric field
B. Magnetic field
C. Number of turns
D. None of these
EXPLANATION
Step down transformer has decreased number of turns in secondary coil.

QUESTION: To start a fusion reaction, the energy required is ___.
A. Small
B. Large
C. Infinite
D. Zero
EXPLANATION
Fusion reactions need a large amount of energy as two smaller nuclei are joined to formed a larger nucleus.

QUESTION: In a standing waves, the distance between two nodes and two antinodes is:
A. Equal to one wavelength
B. Equal to two wavelength
C. Equal to half of wavelength
D. Equal to quarter of wavelength
EXPLANATION
Nodes and antinodes are known to form stationary waves. In a given stationary wave, the distance between any given two successive nodes is half the wavelength.

QUESTION: Calculate the frequency of photon associated with 500 nm wavelength.
A. 5 x 10^(14) Hz
B. 6 x 10^(14) Hz
C. 7 x 10^(14) Hz
D.  9 x 10^(14) Hz
EXPLANATION
The formula used is v = f × λ (where speed of sound is 3.0 x 10^8) so frequency is = 3.0 x 10^8 / 500 x 10^-9 = 6 x 10^14 Hz.

QUESTION: Which light photon has the least momentum?
A. Red
B. Green
C. Yellow
D. Blue
EXPLANATION
Red light is a longer wavelength, and therefore lower energy and lower momentum than a blue one.

QUESTION: Instantaneous velocity is defined as ___.
A. dx/dt
B. Δx/Δt
C. Δx.Δt
D. Δv/Δt
EXPLANATION
Instantaneous velocity is defined as the average velocity between two points on the path in the limit at that time i.e dx / dt.

QUESTION: For angular acceleration anti-clockwise rotations means torque is ____.
A. Positive
B. Negative
C. Zero
D. Infinite
EXPLANATION
For angular acceleration, anti-clockwise rotation means torque is positive while clockwise rotation means torque is negative.

QUESTION: The maximum efficiency of full wave rectifier is ___.
A. 80.60%
B. 40.60%
C. 70%
D. 50%
EXPLANATION
It is a fact that maximum efficiency of a full wave rectifier is 80.60%.

QUESTION: The turbine in a steam power plant takes steam from a boiler at 427°C and exhausts into a low temperature reservoir at 77°C. What is the maximum possible efficiency?
A. 20%
B. 25%
C. 4%
D. 50%
EXPLANATION
It is a fact.

QUESTION: The value of K depends upon ____.
A. Charges
B. System of units and nature of medium
C. The distance between charges
D. Nature of medium
EXPLANATION
The value of K depends on nature of medium separating the charges and on the system of units.

QUESTION: A circuit that adds positive or negative de voltage to an input sine wave is called ____.
A. Clamper
B. Clipper
C. Diode clamp
D. Limiter
EXPLANATION
A clamper is an electronic circuit that fixes either the positive or the negative peak excursions of a signal to a defined value by shifting its DC value.

QUESTION: Excited atoms returns to ground state in ____. (time)
A. 1 ns
B. 2 ns
C. 3 ns
D. All of these
EXPLANATION
Excited electrons return to ground state in 1 ns.

QUESTION: The length and radius of electric resistance of a certain wire are doubled simultaneously, then the ________.
A. Resistance will be doubled and specific resistance will be halved
B. Resistance will be halved and the specific resistance will remain unchanged
C. Resistance will be halved and the specific resistance will be doubled
D. Resistance and specific resistance will both remain uncharged
EXPLANATION
Specific resistance remains unchanged where the resistance is halved as length and radius are doubled.

QUESTION: If the linear momentum is increased by 10%, then the change in the kinetic energy will be ___.
A. 0.21
B. 0.11
C. 0.22
D. 0.1
EXPLANATION
Reference https://www.doubtnut.com/question-answer-physics/if-momentum-of-an-object-is-increased-by-10-then-is-kinetic-energy-will-increase-by-31087157

QUESTION: The energy input to an engine is 4.00 times greater than the work it performs. What is its thermal efficiency?
A. 4.00
B. 1.00
C. 0.25
D. Impossible to determine
EXPLANATION
In thermodynamics, the thermal efficiency is calculated by work done / heat supplied  so 1 / 4 gives us 0.25.

QUESTION: Calculate the time taken for the charges to complete the circuit if the total charges were 5000 Coulomb and the current of the circuit was 20Amp.
A. 250 seconds
B. 350 seconds
C. 400 seconds
D. 500 seconds
EXPLANATION
Q = I x t  so, t = Q / I t = 5000 / 20 = 250 seconds

QUESTION:  During an adiabatic proces,s the pressure of the gas is found to be proportional tothe fourth power of temperature. The ideal gas would be ___.
A. H2
B. He
C. CH2
D. mixture of H2 and He
EXPLANATION
In the adiabatic process, the heat content does not change so when the pressure is proportional to the fourth power of temperature, the ideal gas is CH2.

QUESTION: A beam of an ion with velocity 2*10^5 m/s enters normally into a magnetic field of 0.04 T. The specific charge of the ion is 5*10^7 C/kg. The radius of the circle is ____.
A. 0.1 m
B. 0.16 m
C. 0.2 m
D. 0.25 m
EXPLANATION
Reference https://www.snapsolve.com/solutions/Abeam-of-ions-with-velocity-2x-105-m-s-enters-normally-into-a-uniform-magnetic-f-1685119224238082

QUESTION: Angular velocity of hour arm of a clock in radian/sec is ____.
A. π/43200
B. π/21600
C. π/30
D. π/1800
EXPLANATION
Reference https://www.sarthaks.com/421016/angular-velocity-of-hour-arm-of-a-clock-in-rad-s-is

QUESTION: The photon when scattered from a mirror, its momentum becomes ___.
A. Double
B. Half
C. Remain same
D. Zero
EXPLANATION
Since the photon reflects, its momentum changes p′ph=−pph.  But the total momentum of the system is conserved: pm+pph=p′m+p′ph. Thus, the mirror will change its momentum. where θ1 is the angle of scattering of the particle, and E1 is its initial energy.

QUESTION: How many milligrams of tritium will remain after 49.2 years if the starting amount is 32 mg? The half-life of tritium is 12.3 years.
A. 8 mg
B. 2 mg
C. 1 mg
D. 4 mg
EXPLANATION
.

QUESTION: In which situation is distance three times its displacement?
A. Object moves and come back to its initial position
B. Object moves 20 m towards east and 10 m towards west
C. Object moves 20 m towards east and 10 m towards south
D. Object moves 20 m towards north and 10 m towards west
EXPLANATION
Option B is correct, as the object moves 20 m towards east and 10 m towards the west the displacement is 20-10= 10m, while the distance is 20+10= 30m which is thrice that of displacement.

QUESTION: Whenever new nuclei are formed energy is ____.
A. Absorbed
B. Released
C. Remain unchanged
D. None of these
EXPLANATION
Energy is released when new nuclei are formed as new bonds are made. Bond making is an exothermic process.

QUESTION: A half wave rectifier is operating from 50 Hz mains. The fundamental frequency of ripple will be ___.
A. 100 Hz
B. 25 Hz
C. 200 Hz
D. 50 Hz
EXPLANATION
As the output voltage obtained in a half wave rectifier circuit has a single variation in one cycle of ac voltage, hence the fundamental frequency in the ripple of output voltage would be = 50 Hz.