PMC Paid Practice Tests Series 2021 With Explanation - Test 27

[Shahid]

Prepare the PMC Paid Practice Tests Series 2021 with our comprehensive past paper and explanation guide. Gain valuable insights into the exam format, question types, and essential topics covered. Our detailed explanations will help you understand the reasoning behind each answer, allowing you to strengthen your knowledge and improve your performance. Get a head start on your exam preparation and increase your chances of success with our PMC Paid Practice Tests Series 2021 past paper and explanation resource.

QUESTION: She thanked me for what I __?
A. Have done
B. Has done
C. Have been done
D. Did
EXPLANATION
As the sentence is in the past tense (the word “thanked” is used), the missing word should be in the past tense as well, for the sentence to make sense. Hence in this case, ‘did’ is most suitable. It is also grammatically correct when the sentence is said out loud.

QUESTION: Choose the correct spelling of the word.
A. Something
B. Somthing
C. Sumthing
D. Sumthin
EXPLANATION
Other words are incorrect in terms of different meanings and spelling.

QUESTION: This book has won ________ Booker prize.
A. A
B. An
C. The
D. No article
EXPLANATION
As ‘Booker prize’ is a particular noun with a specific meaning and is not countable (definite article), “The” is used. “A” or “An” is used for indefinite articles hence, incorrect in this case.

QUESTION: They ________ a letter.
A. Wrote
B. Written
C. Write
D. Writes
EXPLANATION
Wrote is a simple past tense verb that is most fitting in this sentence. Written, write and writes do not make grammatical sense when said out loud.

QUESTION: Excuse me, could you ___ me the way to the town hall?
A. Let
B. Put
C. Talk
D. Tell
EXPLANATION
In this case, the individual is asking for the town hall directions, hence the other individual needs to guide and ‘Tell’ him the way in the form of one-way communication.

QUESTION: Bring me that file.
A. Declarative
B. Imperative
C. Interrogative
D. Exclamatory
EXPLANATION
The sentence has a command/ order (bring me) and it ends with a period, hence is an imperative sentence. It is not declarative as it does not express strong emotion and no information is stated. It is not interrogative as no questions are asked in the sentence, and are not exclamatory as no strong feelings/ emotions are expressed.

QUESTION: What is a synonym of the following word: Evoke
A. Sell
B. Calm
C. Call
D. Exaggerate
EXPLANATION
Evoke means to bring, recall, or call. Sell means to give something in exchange for money. Call means to tell and announce. Exaggerate means to represent something as being better or worse than it really is. As “call” has the closest meaning to “evoke”, it is the correct answer.

QUESTION: The Prime Minister is a very ___ man. Everyone follows his orders.
A. Powerful
B. Circular
C. Direct
D. Painful
EXPLANATION
In order for people to follow someones orders, they must be in a high position of authority, hence powerful, key people.  “Circular” is not used to describe a persons characteristics. “Direct” in this case does not accurately describe the prime ministers authority and ”painful” is used to describe a sensation, not an individuals characteristics and personality.

QUESTION: Please tell us the story of Cinderella.
A. Declarative
B. Imperative
C. Interrogative
D. Exclamatory
EXPLANATION
The sentence has a command/ request (the phrase ‘please tell’ is used) and ends with a period, hence is an imperative sentence. It is not declarative as it does not express strong emotion and no information is stated. It is not interrogative as no questions are asked in the sentence, and is not exclamatory as no strong feelings/ emotions are expressed.

QUESTION: Choose the correct sentence.
A. Did you know that theyre leaving the city for good.
B. Did you know that theyre leaving the city for good?
C. Did you know that theyre leaving the city for good?
D. Did you know that theyre leaving the city for good.
EXPLANATION
The correct contraction for they are is they’re. As the sentence is an interrogative one (asking them a question) it must end with a question mark.

QUESTION: Although he studied hard, he couldnt succeed ______ getting a high score in his test.
A. In
B. On
C. At
D. To
EXPLANATION
“In” is used in space and in this case the test. On would be used to indicate position. At would indicate a specific time or place, and to would indicate a goal or direction of movement.

QUESTION: Choose the correct sentence:
A. The sun was rising; we had to move.
B. The sun was rising; we had to move?
C. The sun was rising, we had to move.
D. The sun was rising we had to move.
EXPLANATION
As there are two related independent clauses, semicolons are used to join the clauses together. It is also an imperative sentence, hence ending with a full stop. Colons are used to give emphasis, present dialogue, introduce lists, and question marks. This is also used in interrogative sentences.

QUESTION: Most of the milk ______ gone bad. Six gallons of milk _______ still in the refrigerator.
A. Has ... are
B. Have ... is
C. Has ... is
D. Have ... are
EXPLANATION
The sentence is in a present perfect tense, talking about the past and present. As the sentence is in a third-person singular, ”has” is used. As the subject noun is plural (‘six gallons of milk’ mentioned) ‘are’ is used. ‘Is’ would be used for a singular noun, hence in this case it is incorrect.

QUESTION: Jane _____ to bed at 10 o clock on weekdays.
A. Goes
B. Is going
C. Go
D. Going
EXPLANATION
The sentence is a present simple sentence. “Goes” is a present tense used when talking about other people (third person) and when a verb has not been used before it.

QUESTION: The train leaves __ 5 oclock, hurry up!
A. At
B. In
C. Around
D. Under
EXPLANATION
At refers to a specific time, place, or position. In this case, as time is mentioned, ‘At’ is most suitable. ‘In’ refers to a general and longer period of time, such as months, decades, or centuries and is used to describe a general space. ‘Around’ is often used with verbs of movement. “Under” describes in or into a position below or beneath something.

QUESTION: The police _______ (leave) no stone unturned to trace the culprits.
A. Left
B. Leave
C. Leaves
D. Leaving
EXPLANATION
The sentence is in the past tense (the word unturned is in past tense) hence the missing word should be in the past tense. “Left” is the past tense and a past participle of leave, hence is most suitable to use and is also grammatically correct when the sentence is said out loud.“Leaves” is a third-person, singular simple present tense while “leaving” is a present participle.

QUESTION: China is one of the most _________ countries in the world.
A. Popular
B. Populous
C. Populate
D. Popularized
EXPLANATION
In order to describe a large population of people in a given area, “populous” is used. “Popular” means famous/ well-liked. “Populate” means to form/ fill in a place and “popularised” means to cause something to be liked.

QUESTION: Neither my sisters nor my mother __ going to sell the house.
A. Is
B. Am
C. Are
D. Had
EXPLANATION
“Neither” is a singular pronoun. ”Is” is used with third-person singular pronouns, and “Are” is not used as it is used with plural personal pronouns. “Am” is used for first person singular and “had” is used to talk about an event of the past. As the sentence is in the third person and singular nouns are used (‘mother’ and sister’), ‘is’ is correct.

QUESTION: This summer, our vacation should be both exciting and restful.
A. Complex
B. Simple
C. Compound
D. Compound-complex
EXPLANATION
The sentence has one independent clause with no dependent clauses, hence it is a simple sentence. A complex sentence has an independent clause and at least one dependent clause. A compound sentence has at least two independent clauses. A compound-complex sentence has at least two independent clauses and at least one dependent clause.

QUESTION: As an officer (A)/ he not only was (B)/ competent but (C)/ also honest. (D)
A. As an officer
B. He not only was
C. Competent but
D. Also honest.
EXPLANATION
‘He not only was’ is grammatically incorrect when said out loud, and should be rephrased to ‘he was not only’.

QUESTION: Choose the regions of spinal cord.
A. Cervical
B. Thoracic
C. Lumbar
D. All of these
EXPLANATION
Option D is correct since cervical, thoracic, and lumbar are all regions of the spinal cord.

QUESTION: Which of the following proteins play a functional role in creating the force-tension curve of muscle contraction?
A. Titin
B. Myosin
C. Actin
D. All of these
EXPLANATION
Option D is correct since the force-tension curve/ length-tension curve describes the maximum isometric force, a muscle generates, as sarcomere lengths vary. As muscle is stretched from extremely short to extremely long lengths, the force it generates increases over the ascending limb, peaks in the plateau region, and decreases over the descending limb. So, the sequence of events occurring in the muscle contraction influences sarcomere shortening. Option A is incorrect since it only states one out of the three correct answers. Titan is a mechanical protein in muscle cells that has the main function as a molecular spring in the contractile units, the sarcomeres. Option B is incorrect since it only states one out of the three correct answers. The myosin heads bind to actin and cause the actin filaments to slide. Finally, ATP breaks the actin-myosin bond and allows another myosin oar stroke to occur. Repetition of these events causes a muscle to contract. Option C is incorrect since it only states one out of the three correct answers. Muscle contraction thus results from an interaction between the actin and myosin filaments that generates their movement relative to one another. The molecular basis for this interaction is the binding of myosin to actin filaments, allowing myosin to function as a motor that drives filament sliding.

QUESTION: If an individual does not reproduce then its degree of fitness is?
A. 100
B. 50
C. 40
D. 0
EXPLANATION
Option D is correct since the degree of fitness refers to the ability of an organism to survive and reproduce. Therefore, when the organism does not reproduce its degree of fitness is zero. Option A is incorrect since an organism, with a degree of fitness corresponding to 100, has a high rate of reproduction. Option B is incorrect since an individual, with no reproductive ability, cannot have a degree of fitness as 50. Option C is incorrect since an individual, with no reproductive ability, cannot have a degree of fitness as 40.

QUESTION: Which of the following is not found in series protostomia?
A. Annelida
B. Arthropoda
C. Mollusca
D. Echinodermata
EXPLANATION
Option D is correct since Echinodermata belongs to the deuterostomia series. Deuterostomia series refers to the organisms in which the blastopore develops into the anus and a second opening which develops later and forms a mouth. Option A is incorrect since Annelida belong to the Protostomia series. Option B is incorrect since Arthropoda belong to the Protostomia series. Option C is incorrect since Phylum Mollusca belongs to the Protostomia series.

QUESTION: Enzymes that are involved in the control and regulation of biological processes are?
A. Allosteric enzymes
B. Inhibitors
C. Regulators
D. None of these
EXPLANATION
Option C is correct since enzymes are known as regulators when they are used for the maintenance of biological processes in living beings. Option A is incorrect since allosteric enzymes can play a role in both feedback inhibition and once combined with an irreversible non-competitive inhibitor, they can be permanently damaged. So, they are not always regulatory. Option B is incorrect since inhibitors decrease the rate of enzyme activity. Some of them do play a role in feedback inhibition, but not all of them do this. Option D is incorrect since it states none of these, which is not the case.

QUESTION: The compound microscope was first used by:
A. A. V. Leeuwenhoek
B. Pateur
C. Jannsen and Hans
D. None of these options are correct
EXPLANATION
Option A is correct since Antonie van Leeuwenhoek was the first to use the compound microscope to observe bacteria and protozoa. Option B is incorrect as Louis Pasteur discovered the principles of vaccination, microbial fermentation, and pasteurization. Option C is incorrect as Hans Janssen was the inventor of the compound microscope along with his son Zacharias Janssen. Option D is incorrect as Antonie van Leeuwenhoek is the correct option.

QUESTION: What percentage of protein is found in the cell membrane?
A. 20-40
B. 40-50
C. 60-80
D. 90
EXPLANATION
Option C is correct since according to the National Book Foundation, the percentage of proteins in the cell membrane is 60-80%. Option A is incorrect since 20-40% refers to the percentage of lipids in the cell membrane. Options B and D are incorrect since the exact ratio of percentages of proteins to lipids in the cell membrane is 60:40.

QUESTION: Which of the following is a chemical link between catabolism and anabolism?
A. AMP
B. ATP
C. ADP
D. All of these
EXPLANATION
Option B is correct since Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is the energy molecule of the cell. During catabolic reactions, ATP is created and energy is stored until needed during anabolic reactions. These building blocks are then used for the synthesis of molecules in anabolic reactions. Option A is incorrect since AMP is not commonly formed during metabolic reactions and is readily converted to ATP for use. Option C is incorrect since ADP is not commonly formed during metabolic reactions and is readily converted to ATP for use. Option D is incorrect since it states all of these which is not the case.

QUESTION: What type of genetic material is found in the virus?
A. DNA and RNA
B. DNA
C. RNA
D. DNA or RNA
EXPLANATION
Option D is correct since viruses can store decoded information ( genetic information ) to a limited extent. Since the amount of DNA or RNA stored is measured according to the number of base pairs, viruses accommodate only a small number of base pairs. Option A is incorrect as both DNA and RNA cannot be stored in a virus as the head or capsule region can store DNA or RNA. Option B is incorrect as not all viruses contain only DNA as the genetic material. Option C is incorrect as not all viruses contain only RNA as the genetic material.

QUESTION: When two or more clearly different phenotypes exist in same population of species, the phenomenon is called?
A. Replication
B. Polymorphism
C. Gene linkage
D. Gene expression
EXPLANATION
Option B is correct since polymorphism is the existence of two or more phenotypes in the same population. Option A is incorrect since replication is the action of copying or reproducing something. So, there cannot be different phenotypes in replication but the same ones. Option C is incorrect since genetic linkage describes how two genes that are located close to each other on a chromosome are often inherited together. Option D is incorrect since gene expression is the process by which a gene gets turned on in a cell to make RNA and proteins.

QUESTION: The flagella originates from which part of the cell?
A. Basal body
B. Cell membrane
C. Cell wall
D. Capsule
EXPLANATION
Option A is correct as cilia and flagella originate from their basal bodies embedded in the cytoplasm. Basal bodies have the same circular arrangement of microtubule triplets as centrioles. Option B is incorrect as the cell membrane is the structure into which the basal body is embedded. Option C is incorrect since the basal body is embedded in the cell wall and cell membrane. Option D is incorrect since the capsule may cover the cell wall in a bacterial cell, so the basal body becomes embedded in it too.

QUESTION: The function of lymph node is to filter
A. Blood
B. Lymph
C. Semen
D. Amniotic fluid
EXPLANATION
Option B is correct since the lymph capillaries, containing lymph fluid, pass through the lymph nodes as they return the lymph into the blood circulation. Option A is incorrect as the blood does not directly pass through the lymph nodes. It leaks into the interstitial spaces and forms the lymph, which drains into the lymph capillaries. Option C is incorrect as semen does not pass through the lymph nodes. The semen passes through the epididymis, ductus deferens, ejaculatory duct, and urethra. Option D since the amniotic fluid is absorbed through the fetal gastrointestinal system and is either recycled through the kidneys or is transferred to the maternal compartment through the placenta.

QUESTION: The thalamus and hypothalamus are located in which region of the brain?
A. Brainstem
B. Cerebrum
C. Cerebellum
D. Diencephalon
EXPLANATION
Option D is correct since the brain is divided into the regions as shown below:

QUESTION: What is critical in photoperiodism?
A. Length of light period
B. Length of dark period
C. Both Options A and B are correct
D. None of these options are correct
EXPLANATION
Photoperiodism is the ability of plants and animals to measure environmental day length (light period), typically by monitoring night length. This process underlies a biological calendar. Photoperiod is inversely correlated to the nightly duration of melatonin secretion in animals Option A is correct since the length of the day is critical for photoperiodism to occur. Option B is incorrect since it says the opposite of what is critical for photoperiodism. Option C is incorrect since it states both of these which is not correct. Option D is incorrect since it states none of these which is not the case.

QUESTION: Gene is the molecular unit of the following:
A. DNA
B. RNA
C. Heridity
D. Genotype
EXPLANATION
Option C is correct since the gene is the molecular unit of heredity is a fact. Option A is incorrect since the gene is a short segment of DNA that codes for a polypeptide. A DNA molecule has many genes. Option B is incorrect since RNA has codons and not genes. Option D is incorrect since genes make up different DNA sequences called genotypes. So, it is not the molecular unit of genotype.

QUESTION: Animal fats are in which state at room temperature?
A. Solid
B. Liquid
C. Gas
D. Plasma
EXPLANATION
Option A is correct since animal fats most commonly include, saturated fats that have a high melting point, and are solids at room temperature. Option B is incorrect since plant lipids generally are unsaturated lipids and melt at a low temperature. So, they are generally liquids at room temperature. Option C is incorrect since lipids do not exist as gases at room temperature. Option D is incorrect since lipids do not exist in the plasma state at room temperature.

QUESTION: The process that has transformed the life on earth from its earliest forms to vast diversity is
A. Mutation
B. Evolution
C. Migration
D. Genetic drift
EXPLANATION
Option B is correct since evolution is the process that is stated in the words of the question. Option A is incorrect since the mutation is as important as the first step of evolution because it creates a new DNA sequence for a particular gene, creating a new allele. It is one of the steps leading to evolution. But the statement in the question is not mutation. Option C is incorrect since Evolution can also occur as a result of genes being transferred from one population to another. This gene flow occurs when there is migration. The loss or addition of people can easily change gene pool frequencies even if no other evolutionary mechanisms are operating. Gene flow can also occur without migration. So gene flow might also be one step towards evolution. But the statement in the question is not migration. Option D is incorrect since genetic drift can result in the loss of rare alleles and decrease the gene pool. Genetic drift can cause a new population to be genetically distinct from its original population, which has led to the hypothesis that genetic drift plays a role in the evolution of new species. But the statement in the question is not genetic drift.

QUESTION: Loss of lung tissue is caused by
A. Emphysema
B. Asthma
C. Pneumonia
D. Bronchitis
EXPLANATION
Option A is correct since when emphysema develops, the alveoli and lung tissue are destroyed. Option B is incorrect since asthma inflames the inner lining of the respiratory tubes and tightens the smooth muscles surrounding the airways, resulting in narrowed airways and reduced air supply to the lungs. Option C is incorrect since Pneumonia is an infection that inflames your lungs air sacs (alveoli). Option D is incorrect since Bronchitis is an infection of the main airways of the lungs (bronchi), causing them to become irritated and inflamed.

QUESTION: Inhibitors which block the enzyme by forming weak bond are called
A. Competitive inhibitors
B. Noncompetitive inhibitors
C. Irreversible inhibitors
D. Both A and B
EXPLANATION
Option D is correct as both competitive and non-competitive inhibitors are temporarily bound to the enzymes by weak bonds so their effect can be minimized if the substrate concentration is increased( for competitive inhibitor ) or when more product is to be formed (as in the case of reversible non-competitive inhibition). Option A is incorrect as it includes only competitive inhibitors. Option B is incorrect as it includes only non-competitive inhibitors. Option C is incorrect as it includes irreversible non-competitive inhibitors. These inhibitors bind irreversibly to the enzyme via covalent bonds and alter the shape of the active site of the enzyme.

QUESTION: The number of linkage groups in humans is?
A. 1/21
B. 23
C. 1/23
D. 1/24
EXPLANATION
Option B is correct since the number of linkage groups in humans is equal to the haploid number of chromosomes. The linkage groups refer to all the genes on a single chromosome. These groups are inherited together in an individual. The chromosomes in humans are 46 and their haploid number is 23. So linkage groups are also 23. Option A is incorrect since it states 1/21 which is wrong. Option C is incorrect since it states 1/23 which is wrong. Option D is incorrect since it states 1/24 which is wrong.

QUESTION: A population of birds encounters at dramatic event that results in a severe decrease in population size. As a result of newly decreased population, what type of genetic drift does this population now exhibit?
A. Artificial selection
B. Founder affect
C. Bottleneck affect
D. Both A and B
EXPLANATION
Genetic drift refers to the variation in the relative frequency of different genotypes in a small population, owing to the chance of the disappearance of particular genes as individuals die or do not reproduce. Option C is correct since the bottleneck effect refers to a large decrease in population size due to environmental disasters. As they have stated in the question, a dramatic event has occurred. This most likely indicates that an environmental disaster would have occurred.  Option A is incorrect since artificial selection refers to a process of choosing animals with desirable traits to produce offspring with the required qualities. Though it does decrease the biological fitness of the offspring, it does not correlate with the scenario given in the question. Option B is incorrect since the Founder effect refers to the migration of a small group of individuals. This migration does not affect the population size and genotype frequency of the original population but does have an impact on the migrated population. Option D is incorrect since it includes both A and B.

QUESTION: The resting potential membrane is determined by which of the following?
A. Potassium ion gradient
B. Sodium ion gradient
C. Bicarbonate ion gradient
D. None of these
EXPLANATION
Option A is correct since the typical resting membrane potential of a cell arises from the separation of potassium ions (intracellular, relatively immobile anions across the membrane of the cell). Option B is incorrect since the resting potential membrane is also determined by sodium ion concentration across the membrane but potassium ion concentration is more important. Option C is incorrect since the intracellular bicarbonate regulates action potential. Option D is incorrect since it states none of these, which is not the case.

QUESTION: Fatty acids move through the plasma membrane by which transport method?
A. Passive transport
B. Active transport
C. Facilitated transport
D. Non facilitated transport
EXPLANATION
Option D is correct since fatty acids are insoluble in water and have a similar nature to the phospholipid bilayer. This is why they can easily pass through the phospholipid part of the cell membrane through simple diffusion. Option A is incorrect as passive transport involves all processes that do not require energy, e.g. simple diffusion, osmosis, and facilitated diffusion. As fatty acids are only moved by simple diffusion, that is why this option is incorrect. Option B is incorrect as active transport involves the movement of substances against the concentration gradient using energy in the form of ATP. As the movement of fatty acids does not require energy, that is why this option is incorrect. Option C is incorrect as facilitated transport is the passive movement of substances along the concentration gradient using channel proteins. The fatty acids can easily move across the cell membrane so it does not require such specialized proteins.

QUESTION: The outer body Wallace sponges is made up of which cells?
A. Choanocytes
B. Pinnacocytes
C. Mesenchymal cells
D. Cnidocytes
EXPLANATION
Option B is correct since the body of sponges is designed as in the image given below: Option C is incorrect since mesenchymal cells lie in between the outer and inner body walls forming the mesenchyme.

QUESTION: A series of C shaped cartilage rings are found in the wall of
A. Epiglottis
B. Trachea
C. Bronchi
D. None of these
EXPLANATION
Option B is correct since the C-shaped cartilages are located in the trachea to allow food to pass easily through the esophagus. This is because the trachea and esophagus lie alongside each other. So, if plates of cartilage were present in the trachea, then it would be difficult for the food to pass through the esophagus. Option A is incorrect as epiglottis is leaf-shaped cartilage that covers the glottis to prevent the food from entering the trachea while swallowing. Option C is incorrect since bronchi include plates of cartilage. Option D is incorrect; it states “none of these“ which is not the case.

QUESTION: Vitamins which are not stored in the body are called
A. Fat soluble vitamins
B. Minerals
C. Fats
D. Water soluble vitamins
EXPLANATION
Option D is correct since water-soluble vitamins are readily absorbed by water and are immediately available to tissues for consumption. Any excess of these water-soluble vitamins are quickly excreted in urine and will rarely accumulate to toxic levels. Option A is incorrect since fat-soluble vitamins dissolve in fat and are stored in the fats in our body. Option B is incorrect since minerals are not vitamins. Option C is incorrect since fats are not vitamins.

QUESTION: Fluid secreted by sertoli cells provides sperms with which of the following?
A. Liquid medium
B. Protection
C. Nourishment
D. All of these
EXPLANATION
Option D is correct since the Sertoli cells play a key role in the establishment of an adequate luminal environment in the seminiferous tubules of the male reproductive tract. Secretion of the seminiferous tubular fluid (STF) is vital for the normal occurrence of spermatogenesis and for providing a means of transport to the developing spermatozoa. So, the fluid provides a liquid medium, protection, and nourishment to sperm. Option A is incorrect since it mentions only liquid medium. Option B is incorrect since it states only protection. Option C is incorrect since it mentions only nourishment.

QUESTION: Alternation of generation is absent in which coelentrate?
A. Obelia
B. Jellyfish
C. Hydra
D. Sea anemone
EXPLANATION
Option C is correct since hydra only exhibits asexual reproduction by budding. As there is no sexually reproductive stage, alternation of generation is not possible. Alternation of a generation refers to the production of asexual form by sexual form and vice versa. Option A is incorrect since Obelia belongs to the class Hydrozoa in which both polypoid and medusoid forms show alternation of generation. Option B is incorrect since Jellyfish belongs to the class Scyphozoa and also consist of both sexual and asexual forms. Option D is incorrect since Sea Anemone also exhibits alternation of generation.

QUESTION: Which of the following fish contained lungs?
A. Lamprey
B. Perch
C. Plaice
D. Dipnoi
EXPLANATION
Option D is correct since the group, Dipnoi owes its name from the presence of two internal nostrils. Standing on the basic piscine platform, dipnoans show many interesting features that the early fishes have gone through to become land vertebrates, especially the amphibians. They are the link between fish and amphibians. Option A is incorrect since Lampreys are ancient fish that have characteristics similar to the first vertebrates. They do not have lungs and do not breathe air. Option B is incorrect since Perch and other fish have an organ called the swim bladder which has lost its connection to the digestive system. It specializes as a lung or breathing organ and can regulate the amount of gas that is in the bladder. Option C is incorrect since the plaice does not contain lungs.

QUESTION: What happens during muscle contraction to the length of each myosin and actin filament?
A. A band becomes short
B. I band elongates
C. There is no change in sarcomere
D. Z lines gets closer
EXPLANATION
Option D is correct since the sarcomere shortens during muscle contraction. A sarcomere is a structure bound by two consecutive Z lines. So, when the sarcomere shortens, the Z-lines come closer. Option A is incorrect since, during muscle contraction, the width of the A-band does not change. Option B is incorrect since the I-band shortens and does not elongate during muscle contraction. Option C is incorrect since the width of the sarcomere reduces during muscle contraction.

QUESTION: All of the following are characteristics of prokaryotic cell except for?
A. Unicelularity
B. Lack of membrane bound organelles
C. A cell wall
D. They are usually found in protists and fungi
EXPLANATION
Option D is correct since fungi and protists are classified as eukaryotes. Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes are two different domains. Therefore, prokaryotic cells make up prokaryotes while eukaryotic cells make up eukaryotes. Option A is incorrect as unicellularity is a feature of prokaryotic cells. All prokaryotic cells are unicellular whereas eukaryotic cells may be unicellular or multicellular. Option B is incorrect since prokaryotic cells do not have membrane-bound organelles. Option C is incorrect since prokaryotic cells possess a peptidoglycan cell wall.

QUESTION: The presence of which of the following feature would best indicate a eukaryotic cell?
A. Cilia
B. Organelles
C. Plasma membrane
D. Ribosomes
EXPLANATION
Option B is correct since eukaryotic cells always possess organelles that are membrane-bound. Option A is incorrect since only some eukaryotic cells may possess motile or nonmotile cilia. Therefore, cilia is not a necessary feature of all eukaryotic cells. Option C is incorrect since all prokaryotic cells also possess a plasma membrane. While the plasma membrane is a major component of all eukaryotic cells, the presence of a membrane in prokaryotes makes it difficult to differentiate between the two cells based on the cell membrane. Option D is incorrect since ribosomes are found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. In eukaryotes, 80S ribosomes are present while in prokaryotes, 70S ribosomes are present.

QUESTION: Enzyme substrate specificity is a result of which property of enzymes?
A. The primary structure of enzymes
B. The secondary structure of enzymes
C. Tertiary structure of enzymes
D. Quarternary structure of enzymes
EXPLANATION
Option C is correct since the tertiary structure of enzymes is responsible for the shape of the active site of the enzyme.  Option A is incorrect since the primary structure only forms a linear chain of polypeptide and is not folded into any specific shape which might give rise to an active site. Option B is incorrect since the secondary structure of proteins is found in almost all proteins in the form of alpha-helix and beta-pleated sheets. Since these structures are found in almost all proteins they do not form and specific shape like the active site. Option D is incorrect since quaternary structures of proteins are more commonly associated with prosthetic groups.

QUESTION: Resumption of normal growth by a dormant embryo is called?
A. Seed dormancy
B. Fruit ripening
C. Germination
D. All of these
EXPLANATION
Option C is correct since germination is defined as the sprouting of a seed, spore, or other reproductive body, usually after a period of dormancy. Option A is incorrect since seed dormancy refers to the fact that when a mature and viable seed under a favorable condition fails to germinate, it is said to be dormant. Seed dormancy is referred to as embryo dormancy or internal dormancy and is caused by endogenous characteristics of the embryo that prevent germination. This means that a dormant seed in unfavorable circumstances is not growing. Option B is incorrect since the seed remains dormant during fruit ripening and does not grow until favorable conditions return. The seed resides inside the fruit. Option D is incorrect since it states “all of these which is not the case over here.

QUESTION: A researcher is studying a population of insects and notices that 60% have red eyes, 30% have apricot eyes, 5% have white eyes and 5% have pink eyes. Which of these eye colors would be designated the wild type?
A. Red
B. White
C. Pink
D. All of these
EXPLANATION
Option A is correct since normal wild type is the typical (or the most common) form, appearance, or strain,n existing in the wild. It is also the normal, non-mutated version of a gene common in nature. As red is the most common phenotype existing in the population of insects, it must be the wild type. Option B is incorrect since white eyes are very less in number compared to red eyes. Option C is incorrect since pink eyes are very less in number as compared to red eyes. Option D is incorrect as it states all of these.

QUESTION: Which cells absorb carbon dioxide in the leaf?
A. Neutrophil cells
B. Basophil cells
C. Mesophyll cells
D. All of these
EXPLANATION
Option C is correct since the mesophyll cells are cells that make up the spongy mesophyll of the leaf and are in close connection with the intercellular air spaces that maintain the diffusion gradient for the carbon dioxide in the air to enter the leaves. Option A is incorrect since neutrophil cells are the immune cells in our body, produced by the bone marrow that enter the bloodstream to be distributed throughout the body. Option B is incorrect since basophils are also immune cells produced in the bone marrow and are found in many tissues in our body. Option D is incorrect since it states “all of these”.

QUESTION: The brain is protected and brain tissue is provided with nutrients and oxygen by?
A. Cranium
B. Meninges
C. Skull
D. Ventricles
EXPLANATION
Option B is correct since meninges provide the brain with nourishment and protection. The pia matter and dura matter (the inner layers of meninges) are highly vascularized, with blood vessels perforating through the membrane to supply the underlying neural tissue. These meninges have two major functions: 1)Provide a supportive framework for the cerebral and cranial vasculature.  2)Acting with cerebrospinal fluid to protect the CNS from mechanical damage. Option A is incorrect since the cranium is a bony covering that protects the brain from mechanical damage but does not provide it with nutrients as it is not vascularized. Option C is incorrect since the main difference between the skull and cranium is that the skull is composed of both facial bones and the cranium whereas the cranium is the upper part of the skull, composed of bones that do not move. Since the skull is also a bony structure, it only protects the brain from mechanical damage. Option D is incorrect since ventricles play a role in shock absorption and reduce physical stress.

QUESTION: Which of these processes is the means by which a material can directly uptake and incorporate foreign DNA from the environment into its genome?
A. Transduction
B. Transformation
C. Binary fission
D. Conjugation
EXPLANATION
Option B is correct since the transformation is the process of transmitting genetic information from one bacterium to another bacterium causing it to transform (change). Option A is incorrect since transduction is the process in which genetic material is transferred from one bacterium to another by a third party which is a bacteriophage. Option C is incorrect since binary fission is the asexual mode of reproduction of bacteria. Option D is incorrect since conjugation is the process of transfer of genetic material from one bacterium to another through a tube called the conjugation tube or cytoplasmic bridge.

QUESTION: The contractile protein of skeletal muscle involving ATPase activity is
A. Actin
B. Myosin
C. Troponin
D. Tropomyosin
EXPLANATION
Option B is correct since the myosin head binds to the ATP and adopts a high energy configuration to bind to the myosin-binding site on the actin filaments. Option A is incorrect as actin does not involve the use of ATP itself. Rather the highly energized myosin heads pull the actin filaments towards the M-line. Option C is incorrect since troponin is a regulatory protein bound to the tropomyosin to help it cover the myosin-binding sites on the actin filaments. When a nerve impulse arrives at the neuromuscular junction, the calcium ions released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum bind to the troponin molecules to move the tropomyosin, exposing the myosin-binding sites. (No ATP is involved with troponin directly). Option D is incorrect since tropomyosin is also a regulatory protein (an actomyosin complex inhibitor) that is also stimulated when the calcium ions bind to the troponin molecules upon the receive of nerve impulses. (No ATP is involved with troponin directly).

QUESTION: The human menstrual cycle generally repeats after how many days?
A. 20 days
B. 28 days
C. 10 days
D. 40 days
EXPLANATION
Option B is correct since the average length of the menstrual cycle in an adult female is 28 days. Option A is incorrect since the 20-day menstrual cycle rarely occurs in females who are emotionally or physically disturbed. Option C is incorrect since a repeat of the menstrual cycle after 10 days indicates that the level of the hormone estrogen is significantly low, indicating hormonal balances of other hormones as well. Option D is incorrect since a repeat of the period after 40 days do occur but not on an average scale and indicates stress and diet issues.

QUESTION: If there is no vaccine against HIV, what is the possible reason?
A. The virus is highly mutated
B. The vaccine is too expensive
C. The virus can be controlled through change in hygiene
D. None of these
EXPLANATION
Option A is correct since HIV can be mutated very rapidly and numerous strains of HIV exist. The mechanism behind such mutations is thought to be due to the inability of the viral reverse transcriptase to accurately transcribe RNA to DNA. Indeed, the rates of these spontaneous mutations determine the genetic diversity and evolution of RNA viruses. Option B is incorrect since the HIV vaccine if made, will prove to be cost-effective as per the research conducted. Option C is incorrect since the spread of the virus can be reduced by better hygiene, for example, sterilization of syringes and razors. But this method is difficult to achieve in low-income countries for mass protection against the virus. Option D is incorrect since it states “none of these”.

QUESTION: Which of the following is a oviparous animal?
A. Pigeon
B. Elephant
C. Sheep
D. Humans
EXPLANATION
Option A is correct since oviparous animals are animals that produce young using eggs that are hatched after they have been laid by the parent. Option B is incorrect since the elephant is viviparous and produces young by giving birth to it after it has been developed in the body of the parent. Option C is incorrect since the sheep are also viviparous. Option D is incorrect since humans are also viviparous.

QUESTION: Final acceptor of electrons in respiratory chain is?
A. NADH
B. Cytochrome A3
C. Water
D. Oxygen
EXPLANATION
Option D is correct since electrons after flowing through the electron transport chain (ETC) finally reside in Complex IV where the oxygen accepts electrons and hydrogen ions from the mitochondrial matrix to form water. Complex IV is the esophagusCytochrome Oxidase Complex IV. Option A is incorrect as NADH is the one responsible for producing electrons which then flow through the electron transport chain. It gets oxidized at Complex I ( the NADH dehydrogenase complex I). Option B is incorrect since Cytochromes are capable of performing electron transfer reactions and catalysis by reduction or oxidation of their heme iron. The cellular location of cytochromes depends on their function. They can be found as globular proteins and membrane proteins. Complex IV contains a cytochrome a/a3-domain that transfers electrons and catalyzes the reaction of oxygen to water. Option C is incorrect since water is formed as a result of electron acceptance by oxygen.

QUESTION: In which year was AIDS virus named?
A. 1986
B. 1980
C. 1992
D. 1970
EXPLANATION
Option A is correct since a group of scientists suggested the name HIV-1, which is how we know the virus today. Option B is incorrect since till 1980 it was not known how people developed AIDS. Option C is incorrect since in 1992, The 1992 International AIDS Conference scheduled to be held in Boston, USA was moved to Amsterdam due to USA immigration rules on people living with HIV. Also, Tennis star Arthur Ashe revealed he became infected with HIV as the result of a blood transfusion in 1983. Furthermore, In May, the FDA licensed a 10-minute testing kit that could be used by healthcare professionals to detect HIV-1. Option D is incorrect since in the mid-1970 the epidemic of AIDS started.

QUESTION: Due to the insolubility of large organic molecules, what function do they mainly perform?
A. Structure of cells
B. Enzymatic function
C. Metabolic function
D. Both A and B
EXPLANATION
Option D is correct since it includes both A and B which are right. The insoluble nature of large organic molecules means that it is really difficult for them to pass through the lipid bilayer membranes of cells. So these molecules mainly serve as enzymes ( either on the cell surface or outside ) or play a part in maintaining the structure of cells. Option A is incorrect since it only mentions these large molecules as structural components. Option B is incorrect since it only mentions these large molecules as enzymes Option C is incorrect since these large molecules cannot easily pass through the cell membranes. So, metabolism which involves both catabolism and anabolism involves the production and combination of small molecules respectively is not the function of these large molecules.

QUESTION: The cementing and material between adjacent plant cells is
A. Cellulose
B. Hemicellulose
C. Middle Lamella
D. All of the above
EXPLANATION
Option C is correct since the middle lamella is the layer of material between adjacent plant cells. It cements the cells together and contains pectins, which are also used as gelling agents in food. Option A is incorrect since cellulose is present in primary cell walls and secondary cell walls. The primary cell wall is flexible and is adapted to growth. The secondary cell wall is present in dead cells and provides support to the plant. Option B is incorrect since hemicellulose is again present in primary and secondary cell walls. Option D is incorrect since it mentions all of these, which is not the case over here.

QUESTION: In icosahedral in which win in which the capsomeres are arranged in _______ triangles.
A. 1
B. 20
C. 3
D. 4
EXPLANATION
Option B is correct since an icosahedral structure consists of 20 triangles as shown in the picture:

QUESTION: The difference in photosynthesis spectrum and action spectrum occurs due to?
A. Carbon dioxide
B. Oxygen
C. Carotenoids
D. Wavelength
EXPLANATION
Option C is correct since carotenoids are responsible for absorbing some amount of green wavelength of light too. So there is some degree of photosynthetic activity seen with green wavelength too. Option A is incorrect since both absorption and action spectrums talk about the wavelengths of light absorbed and the wavelengths that drive photosynthesis respectively. Option B is incorrect since both absorption and action spectrums talk about the wavelengths of light absorbed and the wavelengths that drive photosynthesis respectively. Option D is incorrect since both absorption and action spectrums talk about the wavelengths of light absorbed and the wavelengths that drive photosynthesis respectively.

QUESTION: _________ are amongst smallest known virus.
A. Picarona virus
B. Parvoviruses
C. Herpes virus
D. Rotavirus
EXPLANATION
Option B is correct since parvoviruses are the smallest icosahedral particles about 18-26 nm in diameter. Option A is incorrect since picornaviruses are larger than parvoviruses with a diameter of 22-30nm. Option C is incorrect since the herpesviral is a large family of double-stranded and DNA viruses that are larger than both parvoviruses and picornaviruses with a diameter of about 120-260nm. Option D is incorrect since rotaviruses are larger than both parvovirus and picornaviruses with a diameter of about 70 nm when a double-layered capsid is present and 55 nm when this capsid is absent.

QUESTION: Sperms released in water are carried to the mesenchyme in sponges by
A. Stipules
B. Spicules
C. Spines
D. Amoeboid cells
EXPLANATION
Option D is correct since amoeboid cells allow sexual reproduction to occur. Option A is incorrect since stipules are not found in sponges. Option B is incorrect since spicules support the structure of sponges. Option C is incorrect since sponges have little spines-like structures called spicules that are again responsible for forming sponges.

QUESTION: The brain part that carries sensory information to the limbic system and cerebrum is?
A. Medulla
B. Thalamus
C. Hypothalamus
D. Corpus callosum
EXPLANATION
Option B is correct since located in the central part of the brain, the thalamus processes and coordinates sensory messages, such as touch, received from the body.  Option A is incorrect since the medulla oblongata is located at the base of your brain, where the brainstem connects the brain to your spinal cord. It plays an essential role in passing messages between your spinal cord and brain. Its also essential for regulating your cardiovascular and respiratory systems. Option C is incorrect since the hypothalamus is considered to be a link structure between the nervous and the endocrine system, its main function being to maintain the homeostasis of the body. Option D is incorrect since the two hemispheres in your brain are connected by a thick bundle of nerve fibers called the corpus callosum that ensures both sides of the brain can communicate and send signals to each other.

QUESTION: Which of the following animals is NOT a protostome?
A. Earthworm
B. Cockroach
C. Butterfly
D. Sting ray
EXPLANATION
Option D is correct since stingray is a deuterostome. Option A is incorrect since the earthworm is an annelid that belongs to the protostomia series. Option B is incorrect since the cockroach is an arthropod that belongs to the protostomia series. Option C is incorrect since the butterfly is an arthropod that belongs to the protostomia series.

QUESTION: The oldest mineral discovered so far is, which dates back to 4.4 billion years is
A. Iron
B. Zircon
C. Diamond
D. Cadmium
EXPLANATION
Option B is correct since zircon is the oldest mineral discovered. It is a fact. Option A is incorrect since iron was discovered later than zircon . Option C is incorrect since the diamond was discovered later than zircon (900 million years ago). Option D is incorrect since cadmium was discovered later than zircon (in 1817).

QUESTION: Which joints are held together by short collagen fibers embedded in connective tissue?
A. Fibrous joints
B. Cartilaginous joints
C. Sinovial joints
D. None of these
EXPLANATION
Option A is correct since fibrous joints are connected by dense, tough connective tissue that is rich in collagen fibers. Option B is incorrect since cartilaginous joints are connected entirely by cartilage (fibrocartilage or hyaline). Option C is incorrect since, in synovial joints, the contiguous bony surfaces are covered with articular cartilage and connected by ligaments lined by synovial membrane. Option D is incorrect since it states none of these, which is not the case.

QUESTION: The stomata are closed at which of the following temperature? (in ˚C)
A. 45
B. 35
C. 15
D. 25
EXPLANATION
Option A is correct since stomata are closed at temperatures greater than 35˚C. Option B is incorrect since at 35˚C some plants may close their stomata and some may not. Option C is incorrect since, at 15˚C, the stomata of a plant are open. Option D is incorrect since, at 25˚C, the stomata of a plant are open.

QUESTION: Cnidaria is characterized by which of the following?
A. Tissue level of organization
B. Nematoblasts
C. Coelenteron
D. All of these
EXPLANATION
Option D is correct since phylum cnidaria has tissue grade of organization, nematoblasts, and coelenteron. Option A is incorrect since it states only one of all the three correct answers. Option B is incorrect since it states only one of all the three correct answers. Option C is incorrect since it states only one of all the three correct answers.

QUESTION: These are properties of lipids______.
A. Insoluble in water and soluble in fat solvent
B. High energy content
C. Structural component of cell membrane
D. All of these
EXPLANATION
Option D is correct since lipids are insoluble in water and soluble in the fat solvent, they have a high energy content when compared with carbohydrates and proteins (about 37 kJ/mol) and make up the cell membrane. Options A, B, and C are incorrect since they state only one of all the three correct answers.

QUESTION: Which of the following is a chemical link between catabolism and anabolism?
A. AMP
B. ATP
C. ADP
D. All of these
EXPLANATION
Option C is correct since Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is the energy molecule of the cell. During catabolic reactions, ATP is created and energy is stored until needed during anabolic reactions. These building blocks are then used for the synthesis of molecules in anabolic reactions. Option A is incorrect since AMP is not commonly formed during metabolic reactions and is readily converted to ATP for use. Option B is incorrect since ADP is not commonly formed during metabolic reactions and is readily converted to ATP for use. Option D is incorrect since it states all of these, which is not the case.

QUESTION: The replication of the HIV virus nucleic acid depends on?
A. Replicase
B. Reverse transcriptase
C. Transcriptase
D. Reverse replicase
EXPLANATION
Option B is correct since HIV makes DNA from the RNA present inside it. This is done by the enzyme reverse transcriptase. HIV has only three main enzymes: reverse transcriptase, protease, and integrase. Option A is incorrect since replicase is a polymerase of viruses that promotes the synthesis of a particular RNA in the presence of a template of RNA whereas HIV converts its RNA into DNA to increase its numbers. Option C is incorrect since transcriptase is an enzyme that catalyzes the formation of RNA from a DNA template during transcription. Option D is incorrect since reverse replicase is not present inside HIV.

QUESTION: In humans, fertilization involves the addition of chromosomes from the sperm and the egg. The resulting cell is called a?
A. Zygote
B. Egg
C. Embryo
D. Fetus
EXPLANATION
Option A is correct since the zygote is the species formed as a result of the fusion of two haploid nuclei (the sperm and the ovum). It is a fact. Option B is incorrect since the egg is the haploid cell produced in a female by an ovary, and if chromosomes are added as stated in the question, the result will be a diploid cell, not haploid. Option C is incorrect since the embryo is formed as a result of mitosis of the one cell of the zygote to form a ball of cells called the embryo. Option D is incorrect since the fetus is the correct term for the unborn baby inside the uterus of the mother.

QUESTION: Breathing and heart rate is controlled by which of these?
A. Corpus callosum
B. Hippocampus
C. Medulla
D. Thalamus
EXPLANATION
Option C is correct since the medulla oblongata is located at the base of your brain, where the brainstem connects the brain to your spinal cord. It plays an essential role in passing messages between your spinal cord and brain. Its also essential for regulating your cardiovascular and respiratory systems. Option A is incorrect since the two hemispheres in your brain are connected by a thick bundle of nerve fibers called the corpus callosum that ensures both sides of the brain can communicate and send signals to each other. Option B is incorrect since the hippocampus is a complex brain structure embedded deep into the temporal lobe. It has a major role in learning and memory. Option D is incorrect since located in the central part of the brain, the thalamus processes and coordinates sensory messages, such as touch, received from the body.

QUESTION: Which of these are the largest animal viruses?
A. HIV
B. Poxviruses
C. COVID-19
D. HBV
EXPLANATION
Option B is correct since poxviruses are brick-shaped (240 nm by 300 nm) . Option A is incorrect since HIV has a diameter of about 100 nm and are smaller than poxviruses. Option C is incorrect since COVID-19 is 80-220 nm in diameter and are smaller than poxviruses. Option D is incorrect since HBV has a diameter of 42 nm.

QUESTION: The last common ancestor of humans is known to be which of the following?
A. Homo neanderthalensis
B. Lemuroidea
C. Dromaeosaurus
D. Pan troglodytes
EXPLANATION
Option D is correct since chimpanzee (pan troglodytes) is the last common ancestor of all humans (fact). Option A is incorrect since Neanderthals (the th pronounced as t). Homo neanderthalensis was a close cousin, but not our ancestor. Option B is incorrect since lemurs are more closely related to humans. Lemurs are primates, an order that includes monkeys, apes, and humans. But they are not the last ancestor of humans. Option C is incorrect since the dromaeosaurs are the ancestors of birds. Dromaeosaurus is a genus of dromaeosaurid theropod dinosaur which lived during the Late Cretaceous period.

QUESTION: Which of the following strategies of enzymatic inhibition is used by noncompetitive inhibitors?
A. Bind to substrate so that it cannot bind to the active site
B. Target the enzyme for destruction using a protease
C. Bind to the active site and prevents substrate from binding
D. Bind to an allosteric site to cause a confirmational shift in the enzyme
EXPLANATION
Option D is correct since non-competitive inhibitors bind to a site on the enzyme away from the active site, called the allosteric site. The non-competitive inhibitors do not compete with the substrate for occupancy of the active site. The binding of the non-competitive inhibitor to the allosteric site brings about either a temporary or a permanent change in the shape of the active site. Option A is incorrect since the inhibitors (both competitive and non-competitive) do not bind with the substrate. They bind with the enzyme. Option B is incorrect since the non-competitive inhibitor does not target the enzyme for destruction by a protease. Option C is incorrect since it states the property of a competitive inhibitor.

QUESTION: Which of these is a characteristic of prokaryotic cells?
A. Absence of cell organelles
B. Absence of nucleus
C. Presence of 70S ribosomes
D. All of these
EXPLANATION
Option D is correct since a prokaryotic cell does not have membrane-bound cellular organelles and a nucleus. It contains 70S ribosomes. Option A is incorrect since it states only one out of the three correct options. Option B is incorrect since it states only one out of the three correct options. Option C is incorrect since it states only one out of the three correct options.

QUESTION: What event occurs in the menstrual cycle when the level of progesterone declines?
A. Ovulation
B. Menstruation
C. Menopause
D. Fertilization
EXPLANATION
Option B is correct since when fertilization does not occur, the corpus luteum begins to degenerate towards the end of the secretory/post-ovulatory catalyzes the tot.ofavoringhase as luteinizing hormone blood level declines. Progesterone levels fall, depriving the endometrium of hormonal support and endometrial cells die, setting the stage for menstruation to begin on day 28. Option A is incorrect since ovulation occurs when the luteinizing hormone levels are high, estrogen levels are high and the progesterone production has not started yet so it is constantly low Option C is incorrect since poorly functioning ovaries can cause poor progesterone production. And during menopause, its natural for estrogen and progesterone levels to fall. But since the menstrual cycle is still occurring as stated in the question, menopause is not reached. Menopause is a stage in life when females stop having your monthly period Option D is incorrect since progesterone levels are high when fertilization occurs to prepare the uterus for implantation of the embryo.

QUESTION: The soluble sap of the nucleus in a plant cell is called?
A. Cytoplasm
B. Nucleoplasm
C. Protoplasm
D. Protoplast
EXPLANATION
Option B is correct since the jelly-like substance in the nucleus is the soluble nucleoplasm (fact ) Option A is incorrect since cytoplasm is the jelly-like substance surrounding the nucleus. It is the soluble sap of the plant cell itself, not particularly the nucleus. Option C is incorrect since protoplasm consists of three main components of a cell, the nucleus, the cell membrane, and the cytoplasm. So it includes things other than the soluble sap of the plant cell, the cytoplasm. Option D is incorrect since the protoplast includes the whole of the plant cell with its cell wall removed. So, the protoplast will include all the organelles as well (structures in addition to the soluble sap of the plant cell and its nucleus.

QUESTION: During transport of carbon dioxide blood does not become acidic due to?
A. Blood buffer
B. Neutralization of H2CO3 by Na2CO3
C. Absorption of leukocytes
D. Non accumulation
EXPLANATION
Option B is correct since blood does not become acidic due to the neutralization of H2CO3 by Na2CO3 (fact). Option A is incorrect since blood acts as a buffer due to neutralization. Option C is incorrect since carbon dioxide is not absorbed by leukocytes for its transport. The main purpose of leukocytes is to fight infection. It is a white blood cell. Option D is incorrect since the CO2 builds up in a large amount in the blood for its removal from the body. This built-up amount is controlled and prevents hypercapnia.

QUESTION: Downs Cell is used for the electrolysis of:
A. Aqueous NaCl
B. Aqueous NaNO3
C. Fused NaCl
D. Fused NaNO3
EXPLANATION
Option C is correct since Down’s cell is used for the electrolysis of fused NaCl. Option A is incorrect since, in the Castner-Kellner process, brine (aqueous sodium chloride) is electrolyzed in a cell having two compartments. Graphite anode is in the side compartments and iron cathode in the central compartment.   Option B is incorrect since Down’s cell is not used for the electrolysis of aqueous NaNO3. Option D is incorrect since Down’s cell is not used for the electrolysis of fused NaNO3.

QUESTION: Reduction of ethanoic acid with LiAIH4 produces?
A. Propanol
B. Ethanal
C. Ethanol
D. Ethane
EXPLANATION
Option C is correct since the reduction is the addition of hydrogen to a compound. So when hydrogen is added to ethanoic acid, ethanol is produced. The -COOH group is changed to CH2OH. Option A is incorrect since propanol is the result of the reduction of propanoic acid. Option B is incorrect since ethanal can be produced via oxidation of ethanol. Option D is incorrect since ethane can be produced by the reduction of ethene.

QUESTION: lonization energy depends on which of the following factors?
A. Size of atoms
B. Nuclear Charge
C. Number of shells
D. All of these options are correct
EXPLANATION
Option D is correct since all of the options mention the correct reasons for the ionization energy trend and all three reasons have to be looked at to set up a trend of ionization energy. Option A is incorrect since only the size of atoms is not the factor affecting ionization energy. Though there is an increase in ionization energy as the size of the atoms decreases, this factor alone cannot be used alone to predict the trend of ionization energy. Option B is incorrect since the only nuclear charge is not the factor affecting ionization energy. Though there is an increase in ionization energy as the nuclear charge increases, this factor alone cannot be used alone to predict the trend of ionization energy. Option C is incorrect since only the number of shells is not the factor affecting ionization energy. Though there is a decrease in ionization energy as the number of shells increases, this factor alone cannot be used alone to predict the trend of ionization energy.

QUESTION: How many resonance structures of benzene are possible?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 6
D. 4
EXPLANATION
Option A is correct since benzene is a resonance hybrid of these two structures shown in the image:  Option B is incorrect since it states that benzene has three resonating structures which is not the case. Option C is incorrect since it states that benzene has six resonating structures which is not the case. Option D is incorrect since it states that benzene has four resonating structures which is not the case.

QUESTION: The shielding effect ______ from left to right in a period.
A. Decreases
B. Increases
C. Remains same
D. No change
EXPLANATION
Option C is correct since the number of shells remains the same across a period. There is only an increase in the number of electrons across a period. But the shielding effect which depends on the number of inner shells remains the same across a period since the number of inner shells remains the same. Option A is incorrect since it states that the shielding effect decreases across a period which is not the case. Option B is incorrect since it states that the shielding effect increases across a period which is not the case. Option D is incorrect since it states that the shielding effect shows no change when the period changes, which is not the case.

QUESTION: Melting point of crystalline solids are
A. Fixed
B. Variable
C. Have a range of value
D. None of these
EXPLANATION
Option A is correct since crystalline solids have a sharp melting point which is fixed. This feature is a characteristic of crystalline solids. Option B is incorrect since it shows the characteristics of amorphous solids. Option C is incorrect since it shows that the crystalline solid is impure. Option D is incorrect since it states none of these which is not the case.

QUESTION: Hess law states that the total enthalpy change of a reaction remains same regardless of
A. Route reaction takes completion
B. Temperature of reactants
C. Concentration of products
D. Concentration of reactants
EXPLANATION
Option A is correct since it states the correct definition of Hess’s law which is that regardless of the multiple stages or steps of a reaction, the total enthalpy change for the reaction is the sum of all changes.  Option B is incorrect since Hess’s law does not talk about the temperature of reactants, it talks about the enthalpy change. Option C is incorrect since the concentration of products is a feature of the equilibrium constant Option D is incorrect since the concentration of reactants is a feature of the equilibrium constant.

QUESTION: Limiting reactant controls the amount of _.
A. Reactant
B. Products
C. Both A&B
D. None of these
EXPLANATION
Option B is correct since limiting reactant is the component that controls the formation of a product. It is most commonly the reactant of a chemical reaction. Option A is incorrect since limiting reactant is the reactant used up in a chemical reaction to form a product. A reactant does not form a reactant again. It forms a product. Option C is incorrect since it states both reactants and products which is not the case. Option D is incorrect since it states none of these which is not the case.

QUESTION: Which of the following element is not present in all proteins ?
A. S
B. C
C. N
D. O
EXPLANATION
Option A is correct since sulfur is present only in some proteins, not all. The general formula for proteins is RCH(NH2)COOH implying that ALL the proteins at least contain C, H, N and O

QUESTION: Equilibrium constant for Ideal gases in terms of partial pressure in denoted by
A. KC
B. K
C. Kp
D. None of these
EXPLANATION
Option C is correct since equilibrium constant Kp represents the extent of the forward reaction in terms of the partial pressures of the reactant gases and product gases. Option A is incorrect since it represents the equilibrium constant in terms of concentrations of the reactants and products. Option B is incorrect since it represents only the equilibrium constant. This equilibrium constant could be in terms of mole fractions, partial pressures, or concentrations that are not clearly stated. Option D is incorrect since it states none of these which is not the case.

QUESTION: The rate determining step of a chemical reaction which occurs in more than one step depends upon the
A. Fastest step
B. Slowest Step
C. Catalyst used
D. Temperature of reaction
EXPLANATION
Option B is correct since the rate of a chemical reaction depends on the slowest step in the reaction mechanism. This is a fact. Option A is incorrect since the fastest step has no bearing on the rate determination of a chemical reaction. Option C is incorrect since the catalyst used affects the activation energy needed to start a reaction. It lowers the need to use high temperatures and pressures. Again, it does not affect rate determination. Option D is incorrect since temperature does not have a bearing on rate-determining step.

QUESTION: Which sulphates is not soluble in water?
A. Sodium sulfate
B. Potassium sulfate
C. Zinc sulfate
D. Barium sulphate
EXPLANATION
Option D is correct since barium sulfate is an insoluble white solid with a low solubility product. Option A is incorrect since all salts of sodium are soluble. Option B is incorrect since all salts of potassium are soluble. Option C is incorrect since zinc sulfate is a soluble salt.

QUESTION: Which of the following products is formed when alcohol is added to acetaldehyde?
A. Acetal
B. Ketal
C. Carboxylic acid
D. Alcohol
EXPLANATION
Option A is correct since when alcohol is added to aldehyde, an acetal is formed. Option B is incorrect since ketal is formed when ketone is added to alcohol. Option C is incorrect since carboxylic acid is not formed when alcohol is added to the aldehyde. Option D is incorrect since alcohol is formed when acetal is hydrolyzed using an acid.

QUESTION: Which catalysts are used in catalytic cracking?
A. Silica, lime
B. Silica, alumina
C. Silica, Soda ash
D. Alumina,Pt
EXPLANATION
Option B is correct since silica and alumina are used in catalytic cracking to produce smaller more useful fractions from larger hydrocarbons. Option A is incorrect since a mixture of silica and lime is used to make cement. Option C is incorrect since silica and soda ash is used in the process of glass manufacturing. Option D is incorrect since alumina and platinum are used in the process of cyclohexane dehydrogenation.

QUESTION: In chemical combination of H-atom with sodium. It gains an electron but in case of HF, H atom
A. Gains 2 e
B. Loses 1 e
C. Loses 2 e
D. Gains 2e
EXPLANATION
.Option B is correct since, in the case of HF, fluorine is more electronegative than hydrogen, so it gains one electron to complete its octet while hydrogen loses one electron to become stable. Option A is incorrect since hydrogen does not gain 2 electrons to form HF. Option C is incorrect since hydrogen does not lose 2 electrons to form HF, it loses one . Option D is incorrect since hydrogen does not gain 2 electrons to form HF.

QUESTION: Reduction of ketones produce ______ ?
A. Aldehydes
B. Methanol
C. Primary alcohols
D. Secondary alcohols
EXPLANATION
.Option D is correct since the reduction of ketones produces secondary alcohols. The -C=O is changed to the -CH(OH) group due to the addition of hydrogen. Option A is incorrect since aldehydes do not form upon the reduction of ketones. They can be formed upon oxidation of primary alcohols. Option B is incorrect since methanol is a primary alcohol. Ketones form secondary alcohols upon reduction. Option C is the incorrect reduction of ketones from secondary alcohols and not primary alcohols.

QUESTION: SN1 reactions have which of the following species formed and consumed in the reaction?
A. Transition state
B. Intermediate
C. Carbanion
D. Carbene
EXPLANATION
Option B is correct since SN1 reactions involve two steps and in the first step, carbonium ion form is positive. This carbonium ion is used in the second step. Therefore, it serves as an intermediate. Option A is incorrect since a transition state is a feature of the SN2 mechanism, not SN1. Option C is incorrect since carbanion (negative) is not formed in an SN1 reaction, it is the carbonium ion positive which is formed. Option D is incorrect since carbene is not formed in the SN1 reaction. A carbene is a molecule containing a neutral carbon atom with a valency of two and two unshared valence electrons.

QUESTION: The strength of London forces depends on size of
A. Electrons
B. Electronic cloud
C. Lone pair on an atom
D. Poles of atoms
EXPLANATION
Option B is correct since the London dispersion force is a temporary attractive force that results when the electrons in two adjacent atoms occupy positions that make the atoms form temporary dipoles. This force is sometimes called an induced dipole-induced dipole attraction. The greater the size of the electron cloud, the greater will be the asymmetrical distribution of electrons and greater will be the tendency of a molecule to be charged. Option A is incorrect since the size of all electrons is the same. Option B is incorrect since the size of lone pair on an atom is also the same. Option D is incorrect since the size of the poles of atoms does not affect the strength of London forces.

QUESTION: Left handed helix in protein secondary structure is called as____?
A. Alpha helix
B. Beta helix
C. Spiral
D. Concentrate
EXPLANATION
Option B is correct since B-pleated sheets found in globular protein X-ray structures are twisted. This twist is left-handed. Option A is incorrect since proteins typically consist of right-handed alpha helices, whereas left-handed alpha helices are rare in nature Option C is incorrect since spirals are not a common structure seen in secondary structures. The structures are mostly alpha-helix and beta-pleated sheets. Option D is incorrect since it states concentrated structures which are not seen in secondary structures.

QUESTION: On Hydrolysis with dilute HCl, ethanenitrile gives acetic acid through:
A. Formamide
B. Acetamide
C. Benzoic acid
D. Acetaldehyde
EXPLANATION
Option B is correct since nitriles form carboxylic acids via an amide intermediate.  Option A is incorrect since hydrogen cyanide will give formamide intermediate to form methanoic acid.   Option C is incorrect since benzoic acid will be formed after the formation of phenyl amide intermediate.  Option D is incorrect since aldehydes are not formed as an intermediate between nitriles and carboxylic acids.

QUESTION: The amount of heat required to form vapors of one mole of a liquid at its boiling point is called as?
A. Molar heat of fusion
B. Molar heat of vapourization
C. Molar heat of sublimation
D. Molar heat of Evaporation
EXPLANATION
Option B is correct since the change from liquid to vapors at its boiling point is called evaporation or vaporization. Since the change is for one mole, we call it the molar heat of evaporation/vaporization.  Option A is incorrect since the molar heat of fusion is the amount of heat required to convert one mole of a substance from the solid to the liquid state at its melting point. Option C is incorrect since molar heat of sublimation is the amount of heat required to convert one mole of a substance from the liquid to the gaseous state at its sublimation point. Option D is incorrect since molar heat of evaporation is the amount of heat required to convert one mole of a substance from the liquid to the gaseous state at the surface of a boiling liquid. Sublimation is the process in which a liquid or solid changes to a gas. Evaporation is when particles escape the surface of a boiling liquid and enter a gas state.

QUESTION: Actual yield is always less than theoretical yield due to
A. Operational losses
B. Reaction reversibility
C. Side reaction
D. All of these
EXPLANATION
Option D is correct since all three of these reasons are responsible for the actual yield being less than the theoretical yield.  Option A is incorrect since operational losses alone are not responsible for the loss in actual yield. Option B is incorrect since reaction being reversible alone is not responsible for the loss in actual yield. Option C is incorrect since side reactions alone are not responsible for the loss in actual yield.

QUESTION: Graphite has a structural similarity with
A. B2H6
B. BAC
C. B
D. BN
EXPLANATION
Option D is correct since boron nitride is a compound consisting of boron and nitrogen. There are many structures of BN. It is found in amorphous form, hexagonal form, cubic form, and wurtzite form. The hexagonal boron nitride has a layered structure that is similar to that of graphite. These layers are also held together by weak Van der Waal forces. But it differs a little bit with graphite layers because the atoms are eclipsed, that is boron atoms are lying above nitrogen atoms. So, BN has some similarities with graphite. Option A is incorrect since Diborane(B2H6) has four hydrogen atoms and two boron atoms in the same plane. Each boron atom is sp3 hybridized and has four hybrid orbitals. Does not have any layered structure. So, it is not considered inorganic graphite. Option B is incorrect since the structure of boron carbide is not similar to graphite. Option C is incorrect since the structure of boron is not similar to graphite.

QUESTION: For a reaction that can takes place in more than one ways, the enthalpy of that reaction is ______?
A. Same for all the routes of that reaction
B. Different for different routes of that reaction
C. Depends up on the reactants present in each route
D. None of these
EXPLANATION
Option A is correct since Hess’s law states that regardless of the multiple stages or steps of a reaction, the total enthalpy change for the reaction is the sum of all changes.  Option B is incorrect since, for different routes for a reaction, the enthalpy change for a particular reaction remains the same. It is independent of the path taken. Option C is incorrect since Hess’s law does not talk about the reactants present. Option D is incorrect since it states none of these which is not the case.

QUESTION: 80% of the coal is used in ____ ?
A. Lime kiln
B. Domestic purposes
C. Fuel
D. Motor bikes
EXPLANATION
Option A is correct since most of the coal is used for the lime kiln ( fact ). Option B is incorrect since only a small amount of coal is used for domestic purposes. Option C is incorrect since only a small amount of coal is used as fuel. Option D is incorrect since only a small amount of coal is used as motorbikes.

QUESTION: It is the fact that 22.414 cm3 of any gas has a different masses but the same number of
A. Atoms
B. Particles
C. Molecules
D. None of these
EXPLANATION
Option C is correct since Avogadros law states that equal volumes of all gases contain the same number of molecules. Since most of the gases exist in the diatomic state, therefore they most commonly exist as molecules. Option A is incorrect since not all gases contain atoms as their smallest component, they contain molecules. Option B is incorrect since particles can include any species: atoms, molecules, or ions. Option D is incorrect since it states none of these which is not the case.

QUESTION: Ethene is obtained by electrolyzing
A. Potassium formate
B. Potassium succinate
C. Potassium acetate
D. Potassium fumarate
EXPLANATION
Option B is correct since Kolbes electrolysis of potassium succinate gives CO2 and C2H4. Option A is incorrect since if Na(HCOO) is taken in a molten state then the electrolysis will provide Na+ and HCOO- ions and if the temp is high then H2 and CO2 will be released. Option C is incorrect since electrolysis of potassium acetate does not produce ethane. Option D is incorrect since electrolysis of potassium fumarate gives acetylene.

QUESTION: There is one lone pair present in H3O+, it cannot act as a(n)?
A. Electrophile
B. Lewis acid
C. Nucleophile
D. Strong acid
EXPLANATION
Option C is correct since H3O+ has a lone pair of electrons, but due to the presence of a positive charge, it cant donate its electron pair. Hence it doesnt act as a nucleophile. Option A is incorrect since H3O+ can donate H+ ion to nucleophiles by accepting a pair of electrons and therefore, act as an electrophile. Option B is incorrect since it states that H3O+ is a lewis acid, which is not the case because, to be a lewis acid, the species must accept an electron pair. The octet of oxygen and the duplet of hydrogen is fulfilled so it cannot accept a pair of electrons. Option D is incorrect since H3O+ is not a very strong acid.

QUESTION: Sum of oxidation numbers of all the molecules in a neutral atom is
A. Unity
B. Negative
C. 1
D. 0
EXPLANATION
Option D is correct since in a neutral atom the charge is zero. So if we equate all the oxidation numbers we get zero. Option A is incorrect since the charge on a neutral atom cannot be equal to unity. Option B is incorrect since the charge on a neutral atom cannot be negative. Option C is incorrect since the charge on a neutral atom cannot be 1.

QUESTION: If at equilibrium state temperature is increased, it will favour
A. Exothermic Reactions
B. Endothermic Reactions
C. Reversible gaseous reactions
D. Irreversible reactions
EXPLANATION
Option B is correct since an increase in temperature produces more heat, so to absorb that heat, the side of the equilibrium favoring the endothermic reaction will be preferred. Option A is incorrect since exothermic reactions will serve to increase the heat in an already greater temperature environment which is not feasible. Option C is incorrect since an increase in temperature will favor the shift of the endothermic reaction and not both sides. Option D is incorrect since irreversible reactions have only one side which may be exothermic or endothermic. Irreversible reactions do not achieve an equilibrium state.

QUESTION: Physical methods of finding the rate of reaction always involve
A. A catalyst
B. A graph
C. A calculating software
D. None of These
EXPLANATION
Option B is correct since the graph is the easiest method of finding the rate of a reaction given the concentrations. Option A is incorrect since a catalyst can only bring about a decrease in the activation energy and speed up a reaction. It cannot be used to measure the rate of reaction Option C is incorrect since calculating software would be a digital method and not physical. Option D is incorrect since it states none of these, which is not the case.

QUESTION: This is not a molecular solid.
A. Sugar
B. Ice
C. Boron Nitride
D. Solid Iodine
EXPLANATION
Option C is correct since boron nitride exists as a giant molecular structure and has a structure similar to graphite. Option A is incorrect since sugar consists of sugar molecules associated with hydrogen bonds. It is a molecular solid. Option B is incorrect since ice contains water molecules associated with hydrogen bonds. It is a molecular solid. Option D is incorrect since solid iodine is a molecular solid with weak intermolecular forces of attraction. It is a molecular solid.

QUESTION: Which of the following can form a chelate?
A. Amine
B. Oxalate
C. Carbonyl
D. Cyano
EXPLANATION
Option B is correct since Oxalate is a bidentate ligand, and it shapes a chelate. This may be coordinated with all the O atoms. A chelate is a compound containing a ligand (typically organic) bonded to a central metal atom at two or more points. Option A is incorrect since ammine does not form a chelate. Option C is incorrect since carbonyl does not form a chelate. Option D is incorrect since cyano does not form a chelate as it is a monodentate ligand.

QUESTION: Which of the following isomerism is shown by alkynes?
A. Positional isomerism
B. Geometrical isomerism
C. Cis-trans isomerism
D. Functional group isomerism
EXPLANATION
Option A is correct since the position of the double bond may change in alkynes leading to positional isomerism. Option B is incorrect since there are no geometric isomers with alkynes because there is only one other group bonded to the carbon atoms that are involved in the triple bond. Option C is incorrect since alkynes cannot exhibit cis-trans isomerism. Option D is incorrect since alkynes do show functional group isomerism with cycloalkenes but positional isomerism is more common. The functional group isomers have the same molecular formula but different functional groups.

QUESTION: Sulphur-16 gets its stabilization by gaining 2 electron to become equal to
A. Neon
B. Argon
C. Helium
D. Krypton
EXPLANATION
Option B is correct since sulfur-16 after gaining two electrons possesses 18 electrons and attains the stable electronic configuration of argon that also contains 18 electrons. Stability is gained by attaining the stable electronic configuration of a noble gas. Option A is incorrect since neon has 10 electrons whereas sulfur ion has 18. Option C is incorrect since helium has two electrons and sulfur ion has 18. Option D is incorrect since krypton has 36 electrons whereas, sulfur ion will have 18 electrons.

QUESTION: Order of discharge of ions depends upon
A. Their temperature
B. Their concentration
C. Their Activation Energy
D. All of these
EXPLANATION
Option B is correct since the order of discharge of ions in an electrolytic cell depends on concentration. The greater the concentration, the easier the discharge. Option A is incorrect since temperature does not affect the order of discharge of ions. Option C is incorrect since activation energy does not affect the order of discharge of ions. Option D is incorrect since it states none of these, which is not correct.

QUESTION: CI-Cl Bond distance is is 5.63 A, While NaCl bond distance is
A. Half of 5.63
B. Double to 5.63
C. 5.63
D. None of these
EXPLANATION
.Option A is correct since, in a chlorine molecule, chlorine exists as atoms. So the Cl- Cl bond distance becomes double the radius of each chlorine atom. When Na is compared with Cl, the radius of Na is approximately double the radius of the chlorine atom. When Na+ is formed, the radius of the Na atom becomes almost half the radius of Na, and the radius of Cl- becomes almost double the radius of the Cl atom. So, when these two atoms with their respective radii are attracted towards each other, the bond distance is half of the Cl-Cl bond distance. Option B is incorrect since Na-Cl bond distance cannot be double of Cl-Cl bond distance. Option C is incorrect since Nac-Cl bond distance cannot be equal to Cl-Cl bond distance. Option D is incorrect since it states none of these, which is not the case.

QUESTION: The good electron loser elements belongs to group
A. 1A
B. 2A
C. 3A
D. 4A
EXPLANATION
Option A is correct since group 1A atoms lose their electron easily because they are large and ionization energy decreases down the group Option B is incorrect since group 2A will lose electrons less easily than group 1A atoms as they are comparatively smaller than group 1A atoms due to greater nuclear charge across the same period  Option C is incorrect since group 3A will lose electrons less easily than even group 2A atoms as they are comparatively smaller than group 2A atoms due to greater nuclear charge across the same period  Option C is incorrect since group 4A will lose electrons less easily than even group 3A atoms as they are comparatively smaller than group 3A atoms due to greater nuclear charge across the same period

QUESTION: Which of the following acid is used a coagulant for latex in the rubber industry ?
A. Acetic acid
B. Butyric acid
C. Propanoic acid
D. All of these
EXPLANATION
Option A is correct since ethanoic acid is an organic acid. It ionizes in water to produce hydrogen ions. The positive hydrogen ions help to neutralize the negatively-charged rubber particles, allowing the latex to coagulate. Option B is incorrect since butyric acid is used in the preparation of various butyrate esters. It is used to produce cellulose acetate butyrate (CAB), which is used in a wide variety of tools, paints, and coatings, and is more resistant to degradation than cellulose acetate. Option C is incorrect since propanoic Acid is a colorless, oily liquid with a strong, unpleasant odor. It is used as a preservative, fungicide, and antimicrobial agent. Option D is incorrect since it states all of these, which is not the case.

QUESTION: Which of the following is most reactive of all?
A.  Alkanes
B.  Alkenes
C. Alkynes
D. Benzene
EXPLANATION
Alkanes are least reactive, followed by benzene. Alkenes are more reactive than alkynes.

QUESTION:  What is optimum temperature for the process of fermentation?
A. 10-15 degrees
B. 25-30 degrees
C. 25-35 degrees
D. 25-40 degrees
EXPLANATION
Option C is correct since 25-35 degrees is the perfect range for the process of fermentation. 32-35 degrees Celsius is the ideal temperature range. Option A is incorrect since 10-15 degrees celsius is too low for the process of fermentation. Option B is incorrect since 25-30 degrees celsius is not the ideal range. Since the optimum temperature for fermentation is between 32-35 degrees celsius. Option D is incorrect since 25-40 degrees celsius is too high for the process of fermentation. Every degree above this range (32-35) depresses fermentation.

QUESTION: Which of these have a positive value of enthalpy?
A. Combustion
B. Neutralization
C. Atomization
D. All of these
EXPLANATION
Option C is correct since the enthalpy of atomization is always positive since energy is always absorbed to break bonds between molecules to form atoms. Option A is incorrect since enthalpy of combustion is always negative. Option B is incorrect since enthalpy of neutralization is always negative. Option D is incorrect since it states all of these, which is not the case.

QUESTION: Which of the following properties belong to acetic acid?
A. Colourless liquid, odourless, sour taste
B. Bright colour and bitter taste
C. Colourless solid, sour taste, pungent smell
D. All are incorrect
EXPLANATION
Acetic acid have vinegar smell ,colorless liquid and sour taste.

QUESTION: When O-H bond breaks in alcohol, the order of reactivity is
A. Primary alcohol ) secondary alcohol ) tertiary alcohol
B. Methyl alcohol ) primary alcohol ) secondary alcohol ) tertiary alcohol
C. Primary alcohol ( secondary alcohol ( tertiary alcohol
D. Ethanol ) primary alcohol ) secondary alcohol ) tertiary alcohol
EXPLANATION
Option B is correct since the order of reactivity of alcohols when the O-H bond breaks are methyl alcohol(greatest degree of cleavage) --- primary alcohol---secondary alcohol and tertiary alcohol (lowest degree of cleavage) due to the greater electron-donating effect of three alkyl groups rather than one. Option A is incorrect since it does not talk about the methyl alcohol. Option C is incorrect since it states the order of reactivity in the reverse order. Option D is incorrect since it mentions ethanol which can be included in primary alcohol rather than methanol.

QUESTION: Flavour of Orange is due to the presence of _____ ester.
A. Benzyl acetate
B. Octyl Acetate
C. Amyl Butyrate
D. Ethyl butyrate
EXPLANATION
Option B is correct since octylacetate is classified as an ester that is formed from 1-octanol (octyl alcohol) and acetic acid. It is found in oranges, grapefruits, and other citrus products.  Option A is incorrect since benzyl acetate is found in the, highest concentration in sweet basils and is detected in figs, fruits, pomes, tea, and alcoholic beverages making benzyl acetate a potential biomarker for the consumption of these foods. Option C is incorrect since amyl acetate is the primary component of banana oil and pear oil.  Option D is incorrect since ethyl butyrate is present in many fruits e.g. apple, apricot, banana, plum, tangerine, etc.

QUESTION: With different number of moles of reactants and product, the volume of system
A. Remains unchanged
B. Changes
C. Decreases
D. Increases
EXPLANATION
Option B is correct since Avogadro’s law states that under the same conditions of temperature and pressure, equal volumes of different gases contain an equal number of molecules. So the volume of a gaseous system is related to the number of moles, and when the number of moles changes, the volume of the system changes. Option A is incorrect since the volume of the system does not remain unchanged with a change in the number of moles. Option C is incorrect since the volume of a system does not always decrease with different numbers of moles. Option D is incorrect since the volume of a system does not always increase with different numbers of moles.

QUESTION: Sodium metal shows metallic luster is explained by
A. Diffusion of Na+
B. Oscillation of loose electrons
C. Excitation of free protons
D. Strong crystal lattice
EXPLANATION
Option B is correct since the luster of sodium metal is due to the oscillation of the loose electron of sodium metal. As sodium metal has only one valence electron. This valence electron undergoes excitation and thus gives color and luster to the metal. Option A is incorrect since diffusion of Na+ is not the correct reason for the metallic luster. Option C is incorrect since the excitation of free protons is not the correct reason for the metallic luster. Option D is incorrect since strong crystal lattice is not the correct reason for the metallic luster.

QUESTION: Phopho-glyceromutases are example of:
A. Lyases
B. Hydrolases
C. Ligases
D. Transferases
EXPLANATION
Option A is correct since lyases are enzymes that catalyze the breakdown of specific covalent bonds and the removal of groups without hydrolysis. Since phosphoglyceromutase catalyzes the following reaction: It is classified as a lyase. Option B is incorrect since hydrolases are enzymes that bring about the breakdown of large complex organic molecules into smaller ones by adding water (hydrolysis) and breaking the specific covalent bonds. Option C is incorrect since ligases are enzymes that bring about the joining together of two molecules. Option D is incorrect since transferases catalyze the transfer of a specific functional group other than hydrogen from one substrate to another. The chemical group transferred in the process is not in a free state.

QUESTION: Which of the following has six isotopes?
A. Cadmium
B. Tin
C. Palladium
D. Carbon
EXPLANATION
Option C is correct since palladium has six stable isotopes. Option A is incorrect since cadmium has six isotopic forms but one of them is unstable. Option B is incorrect since tin has 10 stable isotopes. Option D is incorrect since carbon has three stable isotopes.

QUESTION: What are d-block elements are called?
A. Coinage metals
B. Noble metals
C. Transition metals
D. Alkali metals
EXPLANATION
Option C is correct since d-block and f-block elements are called transition elements. Option A is incorrect since coinage metals are part of transition metals and they include silver, gold, and platinum. Option B is incorrect since noble metals are also part of transition elements and they include ruthenium (Ru), rhodium (Rh), palladium (Pd), silver (Ag), osmium (Os), iridium (Ir), platinum (Pt), and gold. Option D is incorrect since alkali metals include group 1A elements which do not transition elements.

QUESTION: In one second if the concentration changes from 0.1 to 0.25 then the rate will be
A. 0.02 Moles/dm3s-1
B. 0.03 Moles/dm3s-1
C. 0.15 Moles/dm3s-1
D. 0.11Moles/dm3s-1
EXPLANATION
Option C is correct since the formula for the rate of a reaction is a change in the concentration of reactants or products over the time taken. Since the concentration of the reactant changed from 0.1 to 0.25 in 1 second, the rate will be (0.25-0.1)/1 = 0.15 mol dm^-3. Option A is incorrect since it does not give the right answer. Option B is incorrect since it does not give the right answer. Option D is incorrect since it does not give the right answer.

QUESTION: Which of the following does not have sp2 hybridized orbital?
A. Acetone
B. Acetonitrile
C. Acetic acid
D. Acetamide
EXPLANATION
Option B is correct since acetonitrile consists of bond angles of 109.5 degrees which shows sp3 hybridization, and a bond angle of 180 degrees which shows sp hybridization. Option A is incorrect since acetone shows a bond angle of 120 degrees showing sp2 hybridization and a bond angle of 109.5 degrees showing sp2 hybridization. Option C is incorrect since acetic acids have bond angles of 109.5, 120, and 104.5 exhibiting sp3 hybridization, sp2 hybridization, and sp3 hybridization respectively. Option D is incorrect since acetamides have bond angles of 109.5, 120, and 117 degrees exhibiting sp3 hybridization, sp2 hybridization, and sp3hybridization respectively.

QUESTION: According to VSEPR theory, the repulsions are called
A. Joule repulsion
B. Planks repulsion
C. Van der waals repulsion
D. J.J.Thomson repulsion
EXPLANATION
Option C is correct since Van der Waals forces include attractive forces arising from interactions between the partial electric charges and repulsive forces arising from Pauli’s exclusion principle, and the exclusion of electrons in overlapping orbitals. These forces are considered in the VSEPR model. Option A is incorrect since the VSEPR model does not talk about the joule repulsion. Option B is incorrect since the VSEPR model does not talk about the plank repulsion. Option D is incorrect since the VSEPR model does not talk about the J.J Thomson repulsion.

QUESTION: Which unit of pressure is commonly used by meteorologists?
A. Atm
B. Pascal
C. mm of Hg
D. Millibar
EXPLANATION
Option D is correct since Meteorologists use a metric unit for pressure called a millibar and the average pressure at sea level is 1013.25 millibars. Option A is incorrect since standard atmosphere (atm) is mainly used as a reference value for the average atmospheric pressure at sea level. It is often used to indicate the depth rating for a water-resistant watch but otherwise is rarely used as a unit for measuring pressure. Option B is incorrect since the pascal is used to measure sound pressure. Option B is incorrect since even though mm of Hg is not an SI unit, it is still routinely used in medicine, meteorology, aviation, and many other scientific fields.

QUESTION: Which of the following is formed during SN1 reactions?
A. Secondary carbocation
B. Primary carbocation
C. Tertiary carbocation
D. Methyl carbocation
EXPLANATION
Option C is correct since SN1 reactions involve the formation of a carbocation intermediate due to the breakage of the C-halogen bond. Mostly tertiary alkyl halides give SN1 reactions leading to the formation of tertiary carbocation. Option A is incorrect since secondary alkyl halides can give both SN1 and SN2 reactions but again, tertiary carbocation is the more common carbocation intermediate to be formed when compared to secondary carbocation. Option B is incorrect since primary alkyl halides commonly give SN2 reactions which do not involve the formation of a carbocation intermediate. Therefore, an SN1 reaction involving primary carbocation intermediate rarely occurs. Option D is incorrect since methyl carbocation is not a very stable carbocation.

QUESTION: Condensation involves which of the following reactions?
A. Elimination + addition
B. Elimination + Substitution
C. Addition + substitution
D. None of these
EXPLANATION
Option A is correct since condensation reactions involve the elimination of small molecules in the form of water or HCl. Then the other molecules are simply joined to the first molecules resulting in the addition of the other molecule. Option B is incorrect since it mentions that elimination occurs in condensation but substitution does not occur in condensation. It is the simple linking together of two molecules, no replacement occurs. Option C is incorrect since it does mention addition but substitution is not correct. Option D is incorrect since it mentions none of these, which is not the case.

QUESTION: Speed is a
A. Tensor
B. Vector
C. Scalar
D. None of these
EXPLANATION
Option C is correct since speed is a scalar quantity having only a numerical magnitude and possess no direction. Option A is incorrect since a tensor is a real-valued function of some number of vectors and/or linear forms, which is linear in each of its arguments. It is not similar to either a vector or scalar. Option B is incorrect since vector quantities are physical quantities that possess both a numerical magnitude and direction. Option D is incorrect since it states none of these, which is not the case over here.

QUESTION: The value for er for air is:
A. 1.6
B. 1.06
C. 1.006
D. 1.0006
EXPLANATION
Option D is correct since it is the actual value for the dielectric constant of air. Option A is incorrect since 1.6 is the dielectric constant of foam polyethylene. Option B is incorrect since it is not the correct value of the dielectric constant of air. Option C is incorrect since it is not the correct value of the dielectric constant of air.

QUESTION: If the direction of the field and area vector is opposite then field is
A. Positive
B. Zero
C. Negative
D. None of these
EXPLANATION
Option C is correct since flux is the dot product of field vectors and area vectors. Since flux = BAcos theta.  If theta is 180 (that shows the vectors are in the opposite direction), the dot product will be negative. Option A is incorrect since flux will be positive if the field vector and area vector are parallel to each other (that is, theta is 0). Option B is incorrect since flux will be zero if the field vector and area vector are perpendicular to each other (that is, theta is 90 or 270). Option D is incorrect since it states none of these, which is not the case over here.

QUESTION: Which of the following types of force can do no work on the particle upon which it acts?
A. Frictional force
B. Gravitational force
C. Centripetal force
D. Elastic force
EXPLANATION
Option C is correct since centripetal force acts on an object in a circular path. It always acts towards the center of the circular path. Since the object does not cover a distance towards the center of the circular path, the work done by the centripetal force is zero. Option A is incorrect since the frictional force always acts against the motion of an object. The frictional force does negative work on the object since displacement is in the opposite direction to the frictional force and cos 180 becomes -1. Option B is incorrect since work done by the gravitational force is not zero. Option D is incorrect since work done by the elastic force is not zero.

QUESTION: A longitudinal standing wave, in second harmonic mode, is established in a tube that is open at both ends. The length of the tube is 0.80m. What is the wavelength of the waves that make up the standing wave?
A. 0.20 m
B. 0.40 m
C. 0.80m
D. 1.60m
EXPLANATION
Option C is correct since according to the formula for standing waves in an open pipe, the fundamental frequency is : v/2L. For the second harmonic, the frequency is 2v/2L. Let’s calculate the wavelength of the waves according to the formula given in the image. As the length of the tube is 0.80m, there will be three antinodes and 2 nodes. Since L= (2 * lambda )/2, so L= lambda. So 0.80m is the wavelength of the waves. Option A is incorrect since it states 0.20m which corresponds to a quarter of a wavelength. Option B is incorrect since it states 0.40m which corresponds to half a wavelength. Option D is incorrect since it states 1.60m which corresponds to double wavelength.

QUESTION: As the wavelength of light used increases, the distance between bright fringes in the interference pattern
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remains same
D. None of these
EXPLANATION
Option A is correct since the formula for fringe spacing is (L * lambda)/d where L is the distance between slits and screen,d is the slit separation. Therefore, the wavelength and distance between consecutive bright fringes are directly proportional. As the wavelength increases, the distance increases. Option B is incorrect since it shows that wavelength and fringe spacing are inversely proportional, which is not the case. Option C is incorrect since it shows that wavelength and fringe spacing are not related, which is not the case. Option D is incorrect since it states none of these, which is not the case.

QUESTION: If alpha, beta, and gamma rays carry the same momentum, which has the longest wavelength?
A. Alpha rays
B. Beta rays
C. Gamma rays
D. All have same wavelength
EXPLANATION
Option D is correct since wavelength and momentum are related to each other via De Broglie’s equation : p = h/lambda. As the momentum of the three rays is the same, the wavelength will also be the same because “the,h” is a constant, known as Plancks constant. Option A is incorrect since it includes only alpha rays. Option B is incorrect since it includes only beta rays. Option C is incorrect since it includes only gamma rays.

QUESTION: Isotopes means addition of additional ____ in same proton number.
A. Protons
B. Electron
C. Neutrons
D. All of them
EXPLANATION
Option C is correct since the isotopes are defined as elements having the same proton number but different nucleon numbers. This difference in nucleon numbers is due to the neutrons. Option A is incorrect since proton numbers are the same in isotopes of the same element. Option B is incorrect since electrons remain the same in isotopes of the same elements. The proton number of unionized species is equal to its number of electrons. Option D is incorrect since it states all of them, which is not the case.

QUESTION:  In a half-wave rectification, during the negative cycle of the wave the diode is
A. Reversed biased
B. Forward biased
C. Potential barrier
D. None of these
EXPLANATION
Option A is correct since,during the negative cycle of the wave, the diode is reverse biased and does not allow that negative half to pass. Option B is incorrect since a diode is forward biased during the positive half of the alternating cycle. Option C is incorrect since the barrier potential is very high so applied voltage cannot exceed that, this is the reason for the reverse biasing of diodes.   Option D is incorrect since it states none of these, which is not the case.

QUESTION: The SI unit of angular acceleration is:
A. rad/s2
B. rad/s
C. rad.s
D. rad.s2
EXPLANATION
Option A is correct since angular acceleration is the rate of change of angular velocity of a body and is given by radians/seconds2. Option B is incorrect since it states the unit for the angular velocity of a body. Option C is incorrect since it does not mention the correct units for a quantity. Option D is incorrect since it does not mention the correct units of a quantity.

QUESTION: Specific heat of water is
A. 1/Kg
B. 4.18 J/Kg.K
C. 4180 J/kg.K
D. 2090 J/kg.K
EXPLANATION
Option C is correct since 4180 J/Kg K is the correct value of the specific heat capacity of water. Option A is incorrect since the value has the units of heat capacity. Option B is incorrect since it should have stated 4.18kJ instead of 4.18J. Option D is incorrect since 2090 J/Kg K is the specific heat capacity of ice.

QUESTION: In order to achieve high accuracy, the slide wire of a potentiometer should be
A. As long as possible
B. As short as possible
C. Neither too small not too large
D. Very thick
EXPLANATION
Option A is correct since the slide wire of a potentiometer should be as long as possible for high accuracy so that we have a greater length for the current in the galvanometer to be zero if the potential drop across the standard voltage is too great to be measured. A long wire will ensure high accuracy since that length of the wire would be equal to the voltage or emf of the cell that you were trying to measure. Option B is incorrect since the slide wire of the potentiometer should not be short for high accuracy since the short wire would not allow for greater readings if the voltage drop across the standard cell is too great for comparison with the source cell. Option C is incorrect since a medium-sized wire would not allow for greater value readings too. Option D is incorrect since a thick wire will also not allow for greater value readings. It will only decrease the resistance of the slide wire.

QUESTION: Magnetic flux is scalar product of
A. B and V
B. B and A
C. B and I
D. None of these
EXPLANATION
Option B is correct since magnetic flux is the scalar product (dot product) of the magnetic field vector and area vector. The magnetic field and area are parallel to each other, therefore it is a dot product. Magnetic flux is simply imaginary magnetic field lines passing through a given area that does not need a specific direction, hence it is scalar.  Option A is incorrect since the dot product of B and V does not give a magnetic flux.   Option C is incorrect since the dot product of B and I does not give a magnetic flux Option D is incorrect since it states none of these, which is not the case.

QUESTION: Incase of harmonic oscillator total energy remains
A. Variable
B. Infinity
C. Constant
D. Zero
EXPLANATION
Option C is correct since in an oscillation system, the energy can take various forms like potential, and kinetic but the total energy will remain conserved. In classical mechanics, a harmonic oscillator is a system that, when displaced from its equilibrium position, experiences a restoring force F proportional to the displacement x where k is a positive constant. Option A is incorrect since the total energy of an isolated system (in this case, the harmonic oscillator) is conserved. It is not variable. Option B is incorrect since energy is not infinite, it’s finite. The harmonic oscillator may stop vibrating owing to damping. Option D is incorrect since energy cannot be zero, it has some value in the oscillator in the form of stored energy in the harmonic oscillator.

QUESTION: In a conductor, if a 6-coulomb charge flows for 2 seconds. The value of electric current will be:
A. 3 Amperes
B. 3 Volts
C. 2 Amperes
D. 2 Volts
EXPLANATION
Option A is correct since the value of 3 Amperes is correct according to the electric current formula I = Q/t. As 6 coulombs of charge flow in 2 seconds, the current is I = 6/2 = 3A. Option B is incorrect since it does not state the correct units of current. Option C is incorrect since it does not give the correct value of current. Option D is incorrect since it does not state the correct units of current.

QUESTION: Isotopes means the elements have same
A. Atomic number
B. Proton number
C. Different mass number
D. All of these
EXPLANATION
Option D is correct since isotopes have the same atomic number, same proton number, and different mass numbers. Option A is incorrect as it mentions an only the atomic number. Option B is incorrect as it mentions only the proton number. Option C is incorrect as it mentions only different mass numbers.

QUESTION: Average velocity is defined as
A. Displacement/time
B. Distance/time
C. Distance*time
D. Displacement*time
EXPLANATION
Option A is correct since it states the correct formula for average velocity which is total displacement/total time.  Option B is incorrect as distance/time is the formula for speed. Option C is incorrect as distance * time is not the correct formula. Option D is incorrect as displacement * time is not the correct formula.

QUESTION: The angular acceleration is similar to
A. Centripetal acceleration
B. Centrifugal acceleration
C. Both A or B
D. None of these
EXPLANATION
Option D is correct since angular acceleration is not similar to centripetal acceleration or centrifugal acceleration. Option A is incorrect since, in a circular motion, the centripetal acceleration takes the direction towards the center, which varies over the circulation, but the angular acceleration takes the direction of the corkscrew law, which is a fixed direction. Option B is incorrect since the apparent force, equal and opposite to the centripetal force, draws a rotating body away from the center of rotation, caused by the inertia of the body. The acceleration produced in the direction of this force is centrifugal acceleration. The direction of angular acceleration and centrifugal acceleration is not the same. Option C is incorrect since it mentions both A and B which is not the case.

QUESTION: An air pipe opens at both ends. A stationary wave is produced in the second harmonic mode. What is the phase difference between the motion of the particles at the end of the pipe and at the center of the pipe?
A. 0 DEG
B. 90 DEG
C. 180 DEG
D. 270 DEG
EXPLANATION
Option C is correct since the formula becomes L=lambda, where L is the length of the tube. Since the stationary wave produced is in the second harmonic mode, the particles at the edge of the tube and in the middle will both be at antinodes. The distance between two consecutive antinodes equals half a wavelength which corresponds to a phase difference of 180 degrees. Option A is incorrect since the phase difference of 0 degrees represents that both particles are at the same position. Option B is incorrect since a phase difference of 90 degrees represents that the particles are at a distance equal to a quarter wavelength. Option D is incorrect since a phase difference of 270 degrees represents that the particles are at a distance equal to 3 quarters of a wavelength.

QUESTION: If a charged particle enters in a region where electric and magnetic field are parallel to its motion, then it will:
A. Deflect upwards
B. Deflect downwards
C. Speed up
D. Speed down
EXPLANATION
Option C is correct since over here the velocity vector and magnetic field vector are in the same direction so there is no magnetic force. So the direction of the electric field is the direction of the charged particle. The charged particle can be assumed to be positive over here, so its direction will be similar to the direction of the electric field which is from higher potential to lower potential. The electric force will cause the charged particle to accelerate and thus speed up. Option A is incorrect since the velocity vector is parallel to the magnetic field vector so there will be no deflection due to no magnetic force. The charged particle will simply move in the direction of the electric field. Option B is incorrect since the velocity vector is parallel to the magnetic field vector so there will be no deflection due to no magnetic force. The charged particle will simply move in the direction of the electric field. Option D is incorrect since an assumption is applied over here which considers the charged particle as positive. So if the motion of a particle is along an electric field, the electric force will cause the charged particle to accelerate and thus speed up.

QUESTION: If a proton, alpha particle and photon moving with the same velocity enter in uniform magnetic field, then which particle will deflect more?
A. Proton
B. Alpha particle
C. Photon
D. All of these
EXPLANATION
Option B is correct since the alpha particle has the greatest charge (2e) so it will experience the greatest magnetic force in the form of F=Bqv and experience the greatest deflection. Option A is incorrect since proton has a lesser charge than alpha particle and that is 1e where e is the elementary charge. Option C is incorrect since the photon has no charge so it will go undeflected. Option D is incorrect since it states all of these, which is not the case..

QUESTION: The engine is supposed to work between 727 degree C and 227 degree C, then maximum possible efficiency is
A. 1/2
B. 1/4
C. 3/4
D. 1
EXPLANATION
Option A is correct since the formula of efficiency for a heat engine is 1-(T2/T1). So if the temperature of the heat source (T1) is 727 degrees celsius = 1000K and that of the heat sink (T2) is 227 degrees celsius = 500K. Therefore 1- (500/1000) = ½. Option B is incorrect since it states ¼ which is not the correct answer. Option C is incorrect since it states ¾ which is not the correct answer. Option D is incorrect since it states 1 which is not correct.

QUESTION: Work done by the centripetal force on a body moving in a circle is zero because
A. The body moves parallel to F
B. The body move opposite to F
C. The body right angle to F
D. Centripetal and centrifugal balance each other
EXPLANATION
Option C is correct since the motion of the body moving in a circular path and the centripetal force act perpendicularly as shown in the following image: Option A is incorrect since the motion of the body is not in the direction of the centripetal force F as shown above Option B is incorrect since the motion of the body is not in the opposite direction to the centripetal force Option D is incorrect since these two forces cannot act together. It is because both the centripetal and centrifugal forces are the same thing, the only difference is the frame of reference from which we see them. Lets take an example : If the ball goes in a circle and we see the ball going in a circle from the ground frame we will see the ball accelerating towards the center so there must be a resultant force towards the center, that is centripetal force. Now if we change our frame of reference itself and see the entire motion in the frame of reference of the ball, then we are in an accelerating frame we have to use a pseudo force opposite to the resultant acceleration, that pseudo force is centrifugal force. Both the forces are the same, just the frame in which we are watching makes the difference.

QUESTION: If two bodies have the same temperature, the rate of heat transfer between them is:
A. Infinite
B. Zero
C. Double the temperature
D. None of these options are correct
EXPLANATION
Option B is correct since if the temperatures of the two bodies are equal, there will be no transfer of heat energy as heat is an energy that flows from a hotter body to a colder body. Option A is incorrect since it states that the rate of transfer will be infinite which is the case in a vacuum. Option C is incorrect since it states that the rate of heat transfer will be double the temperature which is not the case. Option D is incorrect since it states none of these, which is not the case.

QUESTION: For static electric field
A. Vx E=0
B. V.E=0
C. (VxE)xE=0
D. V.|E|42=0
EXPLANATION
Option A is correct since under static conditions, the tangential component of the electric field is always zero on the surface and the normal component is equal to surface charge density on the conductor divided by the permittivity of space. The symbol flipped triangle represents small lengths d/dt. So the cross product of small lengths and E gives you the tangential component of electric field strength. So that must be zero. Option B is incorrect since it does not give the correct formula.  Option C is incorrect since it does not give the correct formula.  Option D is incorrect since it does not give the correct formula.

QUESTION: Which radiation passes through black body?
A. Alpha
B. Gamma
C. Beta
D. White
EXPLANATION
Option B is correct since gamma radiation passes through the black body (fact). Option A is incorrect since alpha radiations die before they can penetrate the black body. Option C is incorrect since beta rays are not absorbed by the black body  Option D is incorrect since the black body does not emit light at all frequencies equally, it follows Plancks law.

QUESTION: What is the SI Unit of Potential difference?
A. Volts
B. Couloumb
C. Metre
D. Newtons
EXPLANATION
Option A is correct since the correct unit of potential difference in volts. Option B is incorrect since coulombs is the SI unit of charge. Option C is incorrect since the meter is the SI unit of distance or displacement. Option D is incorrect since Newton is the SI unit of force.

QUESTION: Newtons second law states that the rate of _______ change of is equal to external force.
A. Velocity
B. Mass
C. Momentum
D. Position
EXPLANATION
Option C is correct since the rate of change of momentum is force given by the formula Force=(mass * velocity)/time. Option A is incorrect since the rate of change of velocity is acceleration Option B is incorrect since the rate of change of mass is the mass flow rate Option D is incorrect since the rate of change of position which can be related to displacement is velocity.

QUESTION: Determine the angular displacement in radians of 6.5 revolutions.
A. 40.8 radians
B. 4 radians
C. 3 radians
D. 36 radians
EXPLANATION
Option A is correct since the formula for angular displacement is no of revolutions * 2pi. So 6.5 * 2pi would be equal to 40.8 radians. Option B is incorrect since it states 4 radians which are wrong. Option C is incorrect since it states 3 radians which is not the correct answer. Option D is incorrect since it states 36 radians which is not the correct answer.

QUESTION: A longitudinal wave is moving through a medium. Which of the following statements about the direction of propagation of wave and displacement of the medium is true?
A. Displacement of medium = parallel to the energy transfer direction of propagation of wave = parallel to the energy transfer.
B. Displacement of medium = parallel to the energy transfer direction of propagation of wave = perpendicular to the energy transfer
C. Displacement of medium = perpendicular to the energy transfer direction of propagation of wave = parallel to the energy transfer.
D. Displacement of medium = perpendicular to the energy transfer direction of propagation of wave = perpendicular to the energy transfer.
EXPLANATION
Option A is correct since it mentions the characteristics of a longitudinal wave. Option B is incorrect since it mentions the characteristics of a transverse wave. Option C is incorrect since it mentions the characteristics of a transverse wave in an opposite way. Option D is incorrect since it mentions the characteristics of a transverse wave but the first statement is wrong.

QUESTION: Anelectric power is transmitted over long distance through conducting wire at high voltage and low current because
A. It causes less amount of power loss
B. It reduces the possibility of theft
C. High voltage waves travel faster
D. Generators produce electrical energy at high voltage.
EXPLANATION
Option A is correct since high voltage and low current will result in a very low amount of power loss. Option B is incorrect since high voltage transmission does not reduce electricity theft since current is low. Option C is incorrect since voltages are not waves. Option D is incorrect since generators do not need electrical energy, they need mechanical energy to generate electrical energy.

QUESTION: The correct form of Ohms law is:
A. | = VR
B. P=IV
C. V = IR
D. Both Options B and C are correct
EXPLANATION
Option C is correct since the statement of Ohm’s law is obeyed by stating that V is directly proportional to me under constant temperature conditions. Secondly, V=IR is the correct formula for Ohm’s law. Option A is correct since the formula I=VR given is wrong. Option B is incorrect since it alone is not sufficient.

QUESTION: The electric potential difference between two points A and B in an electric field can be defined as:
A. Work done in carrying a unit positive charge from infinity to B while keeping the charge in equilibrium.
B. Work done in carrying a unit positive charge from A to infinity while keeping the charge in equilibrium.
C. Work done in carrying a unit positive charge from A to B while keeping the charge in equilibrium.
D. Work done in carrying a unit positive charge from A to B
EXPLANATION
Option C is correct since it is the exact definition of potential difference between two points.  Option A is incorrect since it states the definition of the potential at a point in an electric field.   Option B is incorrect since it states the definition of the negative of potential at a point in an electric field. Option D is incorrect since it is incomplete and does not talk about the charge being in equilibrium.

QUESTION: A radioactive sample with a half-life of 1 month has the label: “Activity=2 micro curies on 1.8.1991. What will be its activity two months later?
A. 0.5 micro curies
B. 8 micro curies
C. 1 micro curies
D. 2 micro curies
EXPLANATION
Option A is correct since if the initial activity is two curies, and the half-life is 1 month, then after 2 months the activity will reduce from 2 to 1 to 0.5 microcuries. Option B is incorrect since it shows an increase in activity which is not the case for a radioactive sample after a certain number of half-lives. Option C is incorrect since it shows the activity after only one half-life. Option D is incorrect since it shows that the activity did not change, which is not the case.

QUESTION: A half wave rectifier is equivalent to
A. Clamper
B. Clipper
C. Clamper circuit with negative bias
D. Clamper circuit with positive bias
EXPLANATION
Option B is correct since a clipper works to remove either the positive or negative half cycles of the input voltage. Since the diode most commonly allows the positive half cycles to pass through and not the negative, it acts as a positive clipper. Option A is incorrect since clamping circuits place the negative and positive peaks of the waveform at the desired DC level. In other words, these circuits shift the input signal by an amount defined by the independent voltage source. Option C is incorrect since a negative clamper circuit is biased with some negative reference voltage, that voltage will be added to the output to raise the clamped level. Option D is incorrect since a positive clamper circuit is one that consists of a diode, a resistor, and a capacitor and that shifts the output signal to the positive portion of the input signal.

QUESTION: In medical scanning _____ rays are used
A. Photon
B. X
C. Beta
D. White
EXPLANATION
Option B is correct since, in medical scannings such as the X-ray scan and CT scan, the X-rays are used to obtain 3-dimensional images of body parts. It is a safe operation to do. Option A is incorrect since photons make up the X-rays. Therefore a collection of photons is used in medical scanning techniques. Option C is incorrect since beta radiation is used for tracers and monitoring the thickness of materials. Doctors may use radioactive chemicals called tracers for medical imaging. Certain chemicals concentrate in different damaged or diseased parts of the body, and the radiation concentrates with it. Option D is incorrect since it states that white rays are used, which is not correct. An x-ray machine sends individual x-ray particles through the body. The images are recorded on a computer or film. Structures that are dense (such as bone) will block most of the x-ray particles and will appear white. Metal and contrast media (special dye used to highlight areas of the body) will also appear white. This is why the X-rays might appear white, but we do not use white rays in medical scanning techniques. Option B is correct since the output voltage of a rectifier is pulsating. The different types of voltage waveforms are shown in the image below:

QUESTION: The output voltage of a rectifier is:
A. Smooth
B. Pulsating
C. Perfectly Direct
D. Alternating
EXPLANATION
We can use the image below to come to the answer for this question.

QUESTION: A simple pendulum has mass M, length L, and time period T. What is the period of oscillation of the pendulum with mass 4M and length 0.49L?
A. 0.7T
B. T
C. 2T
D. 3T
EXPLANATION
Option A is correct since the formula for a time period of a simple pendulum is T=2pi * root of l/g. Therefore substituting the values: 2*pi* the root of L/9.81 is T. If 0.49 is placed with l, the time-period becomes 0.7T. Option B is incorrect since it states that the period remains the same, which cannot happen since length changes. Option C is incorrect since time-period will double if the length becomes 4 times which is not the case. Option D is incorrect since time-period will triple if the length becomes 9 times which is not the case.

QUESTION: Aman pulls a bucket of water from a meter-deep well, if the mass of rope is m and the mass of the bucket with water is M, then work one by man is
A. (M/2+m)gh
B. (M+m)gh/2
C. (M+ m/2)gh
D. (M+m)gh
EXPLANATION
Option D is correct since work done by man will be equal to the gravitational potential energy gained by bucket and rope. Therefore substituting the masses into the formula of g.p.e=mgh gives (M+m)gh. Option A is incorrect since it does not give the correct calculation of masses. Option B is incorrect since it does not give the correct formula. Option C is incorrect since it does not give the correct calculation of masses.

QUESTION: Work done in an adiabatic process of gas from T1 to T2 is
A. nR/(y-1)(T1-T2)
B. nR/(y-1)(T2-11)
C. nR(T2-T1)
D. R(T2-T1)
EXPLANATION
Option A is correct since it gives the correct statement for the work done in an adiabatic process. Option B is incorrect since it does not give the right formula. Option C is incorrect since it does not give the right formula. Option D is incorrect since it does not give the right formula.

QUESTION: Electric field at a point varies as r0 for
A. A plane infinite sheet of charge
B. A point charge
C. Electric dipole
D. Line charge of infinite length
EXPLANATION
Option A is correct since there is no relation of the electric field of an infinite plane sheet of charge with distance according to the formula provided by Gauss’s law: E = sigma/2 epsilon knot. Option B is incorrect since the electric field for a point charge varies as 1/r^2. Option C is incorrect since the electric field for a dipole varies as 1/r^3.. Option D is incorrect since the electric field for an infinite line of charge does not vary as r^0 over large distances.

QUESTION: The coupling coefficient of perfectly coupled coil is
A. Zero
B. 1
C. More than 1
D. Infinite
EXPLANATION
Option B is correct since the coupling coefficient works according to what is shown below:

QUESTION: Galilean transformations are applicable in:
A. All frames
B. Frame of reference
C. Non-Inertial frame
D. Inertial frame
EXPLANATION
Option D is correct since Galilean invariance or Galilean relativity states that the laws of motion are the same in all inertial (or non-accelerating) frames. Option B is incorrect since it indicates that there is only one frame of reference whereas there are two frames of reference: the inertial and non-inertial cross-sectional areas are directly proportional which is not the case.

QUESTION: Two copper conductors have equal lengths. The cross-sectional area of one conductor is four times that of the other. If the conductor having a smaller cross-sectional area has a resistance of 40 ohms, the resistance of the other conductor will be
A. 160 Ohms
B. 80 Ohms
C. 20 Ohms
D. 10 Ohms
EXPLANATION
The resistance of the conductor is given by:  R = ρ/A As the area of cross section increases, resistance decreases. Resistance of thin wire = 40 Ω Resistance of thick wire = 40/4 = 10 Ω

QUESTION: The value of current in a short circuit is:
A. Infinite
B. Zero
C. Minimum
D. Maximum
EXPLANATION
Option A is correct since, in a short circuit, there is no resistance to the flow of charges so, a large number of charges flow in a very short time. Thus, the current becomes infinite. Option B is incorrect since there is a flow of charges in a short circuit so, the current is not zero. Option C is incorrect since it states that the current will be very less, which is not true as the current will be large. Option D is incorrect as the maximum current can even occur with very low resistance. But when almost zero resistance is provided the current flow becomes infinite.

QUESTION: X-rays are used to investigate
A. Crystals
B. Molecules
C. Ions
D. Electrons
EXPLANATION
Option A is correct since for a full-wave rectifier the output frequency is twice that of the input frequency. Option B is incorrect since it states that output frequency is half of the input frequency which is not the case. Option C is incorrect since it states that input frequency is equal to output frequency which is not the case. Option D is incorrect since it states that the output frequency is 4 times the input frequency.

QUESTION: A full wave rectifier is operating from 50 Hz mains. Fundamental frequency of ripple will be
A. 100 Hz
B. 25 Hz
C. 50 Hz
D. 200 Hz
EXPLANATION
Option A is correct since the rate of flow of charge is current. Option B is incorrect since the rate of flow of momentum is force. Option C is incorrect since the rate of flow of power is not current. Option D is incorrect since it states none of these, which is not the case.

QUESTION: Electric current may be defined as
A. Rate of flow of charge
B. Rate of flow of momentum
C. Rate of flow of power
D. None of them
EXPLANATION
Option B is correct since a phase difference of pi/3 is equal to 60 degrees. If 60 degrees is equal to a distance of 5cm then 360 degrees would be equal to 30 cm. Therefore, 30 cm is the wavelength of the wave. Substituting these values into v=f * lambda gives us, 500 * 0.3m gives 150m/s. Option A is incorrect since it gives double the speed. Option C is incorrect since it gives the wrong magnitude of speed in cm/s. Option D is incorrect since it gives the correct magnitude of speed but in cm/s which is wrong.

QUESTION: The shortest distance between two points on a travelling wave that have a phase difference of (pi/3) is 5 cm. If the wave has frequency 500 Hz, what is the speed of the wave?
A. 300 m/s
B. 150 m/s
C. 300 cm/s
D. 150 cm/s
EXPLANATION
Option B is correct since there can be two frames of reference and they are not fixed. Option A is incorrect since the frames of reference can change depending upon the position of the observer. Option C is incorrect since the inertial frame of reference is moving at a constant velocity and the non-inertial frame of reference is accelerating. Option D is incorrect since it states none of these which is not the case.

QUESTION: The frame of reference could be:
A. Fixed always
B. Not fixed always
C. At rest
D. None of these
EXPLANATION
Option B is correct since there can be two frames of reference and they are not fixed. Option A is incorrect since the frames of reference can change depending upon the position of the observer. Option C is incorrect since the inertial frame of reference is moving at a constant velocity and the non-inertial frame of reference is accelerating. Option D is incorrect since it states none of these which is not the case.

QUESTION: For ideal polyatomic gas molar specific heat is equal to
A. 24.9 J/mol.K
B. 12.9 J/mol.K
C. 15J/mol.K
D. 16J/mol.K
EXPLANATION
Option A is correct since the molar specific heat is the energy required to raise the temperature of one mole of gas by 1K. The values for it are given in the table below:

QUESTION: Consider two capacitors with capacitance 2yF and 4yF. With which type of connection will the 4yF capacitor have a greater amount of stored energy than the 2yF capacitor?
A. Series
B. Parallel
C. Either series or parallel
D. Neither series nor parallel
EXPLANATION
Option B is correct since in a parallel combination both the 4 microfarads and 2 microfarads capacitors will get the same voltage. But since the capacitance of the 4 microfarads capacitor is greater, according to 1/2CV^2, the 4 microfarads capacitor will have a greater amount of stored energy.  Option A is incorrect since, in a series combination, the 4 microfarads capacitor will get the lower voltage as C is inversely proportional to voltage when the charge is the same. Therefore, it will have lower energy.  Option C is incorrect since it states that both options are correct which is not the case. Option D is incorrect since it states that none of the options are correct which is not the case.

QUESTION: Carbon-14 has half life 5700 years. At the end of 11400 years, the actual amount left is
A. 0.0625 of original amount
B. 0.5 of original amount
C. 0.25 of original amount
D. 0.125 of original amount
EXPLANATION
Option C is correct since in 11400 yearstwo half-lives must have passed. Therefore, in the first half-life, the amount of C-14 will reduce from 1 to 0.5. And in the second half-life, ‘T’ will reduce from 0.5 to 0.25.  Option A is incorrect since it indicates 4 half-lives. Option B is incorrect since it indicates only 1 half-life. Option D is incorrect since it indicates only 3 half-lives.

QUESTION: Radon-222 has 136 neutrons, how many neutrons are there in Radon-220?
A. 131
B. 134
C. 136
D. None of these
EXPLANATION
Option B is correct since both Radon 220 and Radon 222 will have the same number of protons. If Radon 222 has 136 neutrons, Radon 220 will have 134 neutrons. Option A is incorrect since it indicates that 3 neutrons are less in between Radon 220 and Radon 222. Option C is incorrect since it indicates that both Radon 222 and Radon 220 have the same number of neutrons which cannot happen with the same element (same number of protons). It must have different mass numbers for it to be the same element. Option D is incorrect since it states none of these which is not the case.

QUESTION: If magnetic field is doubled then magnetic energy density becomes
A. Four times
B. Two times
C. Three times
D. Six times
EXPLANATION
Option A is correct since magnetic energy density is proportional to the square of the magnetic field as shown in the image: Therefore, when the magnetic field is doubled the energy density becomes four times.  Option B is incorrect since it shows that magnetic field and energy density are directly proportional, which is not the case.  Option C is incorrect since it gives the wrong answer Option D is incorrect since it gives the wrong answer.

QUESTION: 1 light year distance is
A. Distance travelled by earth in one year
B. Distance travelled by star in one year
C. Distance travelled by light in one year
D. Distance travelled by light in one galactic year
EXPLANATION
Option C is correct since it gives the right definition of one light year. Option A is incorrect since it gives simply the distance of earth in orbit. Option B is incorrect since it gives simply the distance traveled by the star in space. Option D is incorrect since one galactic year is equal to 230 million light-years. The galactic year, also known as a cosmic year, is the duration of time required for the Sun to orbit once around the center of the Milky Way Galaxy.

QUESTION: Statement I: There is unprecedented increase in the number of young unemployed in comparison to the previous year.  Statement II: A large number of candidates submitted applications against an advertisement for the post of manager issued by a bank.
A. Statement I is the cause and statement 2 is its effect
B. Statement Il is the cause and statement I is its effect
C. Both statements I and Il are independent causes
D. Both statements I and II are effects of independent causes
EXPLANATION
Option A is correct since an increase in the number of unemployed means that more people will be submitting job applications for a particular post.  Option B is incorrect since it states the opposite of the correct answer.  Option C is incorrect since it states that both the statements are not linked which is not the case. Option D is correct since it states that both statements are effects of independent causes, which is not the case.

QUESTION: Look at this series: 7, 10,8, 11, 9, 12.  Which number do you think will be next?
A. 10
B. 12
C. 13
D. 7
EXPLANATION
Option A is correct since this is a 3 and 2 series. We are adding 3 to 7 so it becomes 10. Then we subtract 2 from 10 so that it becomes 8. Then we add 3 to 8 so it becomes 11. Then we subtract 2 from 11 so it becomes 9. We add 3 to 9 so it becomes 12. Finally, when we subtract 2 from 12, we get 10.  Option B is incorrect since it does not give the right answer.  Option C is incorrect since it does not give the right answer.  Option D is incorrect since it does not give the right answer.

QUESTION: Which letter comes before G and after E?
A. B
B. C
C. F
D. D
EXPLANATION
Option C is correct since according to the alphabetical order A, B, C, D, E, F, G, the letter F comes after E and before G.  Option A is incorrect since B comes two letters before E. Option B is incorrect since C comes one letter before E. Option D is incorrect since D comes before E.

QUESTION: Statement: Should admission to the professional degrees in Pakistan be given only on merit without any concession to any particular group of students? Arguments (I) Yes. This will improve the quality of the professional institutes and degrees as they will be able to complete the degree successfully. (Il) No. This will keep a large number of socially and economically backward students out of the reach of professional institutes and degrees.
A. If only argument I is strong
B. If only argument Il is strong
C. If both I and Il are strong.
D. If neither I nor Il is strong
EXPLANATION
Option C is correct since the admissions should be given on merit so that there is greater competition within the class. Secondly, a certain number of seats should also be given to socially and economically backward students who cannot afford to have an education in such professional quality institutions.   Option A is incorrect since it states that only merit should be concerned in giving admissions which will, unfortunately, keep these economically backward students away from professional education. Option B is incorrect since if only this small group of financially weak individuals are considered for admission, many students who have studied hard throughout their lives and deserved the right to admission will be disadvantaged.    Option D is incorrect since it states that neither statement is correct, which is not the case.

QUESTION: A book cannot exist without
A. Education
B. Pictures
C. Pages
D. Qualification
EXPLANATION
Option C is correct since a book must contain pages for it to be called a book.   Option A is incorrect since the pages in the book might not be necessarily about education. Option B is incorrect since the pages in the book might not be necessarily about pictures. Option D is incorrect since the pages in the book might talk about things other than qualifications or degrees.

QUESTION: Look at this series: 2, 1, (1/2), (1/4), ... What number should come next?
A. (1/3
B. (1/8)
C. (2/8)
D. (1/16)
EXPLANATION
Option B is correct since, in this series, the next number is half of the previous number. So 1 is half of 2, ½ is half of 1, ¼ is half of ½, and so on.  Option A is incorrect since ⅓ is not half of any number shown in the series.  Option C is incorrect 2/8 is twice ⅛ which is wrong. Option D is incorrect since 1/16 is half of ⅛ which will be the next number after the number which is required.

QUESTION: Statement The availability of imported fruits has increased in the indigenous market and so the demand for indigenous fruits has been decreased. I. To help the indigenous producers of fruits, the Government should impose high import duty on these fruits, even if they are not of good quality. II. The fruit vendors should stop selling imported fruits. So that the demand for indigenous fruits would be increased.
A. Both of them follow
B. None of them follow
C. Only I follows
D. Only II follows
EXPLANATION
Option B is correct since statement I is incorrect because firstly it is asking to impose import duties despite the indigenous fruits being of poor quality. This would harm the customers who will have to buy the imported fruits at higher prices just to get an acceptable quality of fruit. He Hence, this doesnt follow. Also statement II doesnt help, since it firstly harms the customers who are forced to go for a lesser quality fruit due to inaccessibility. Secondly, this reduces competition in the market (which is mostly considered a negative). Thirdly it doesnt solve the issue of the indigenous fruits being of poor quality.  Option A is correct since it states that both statements are correct, which is not the case. Option C is incorrect since it says that statement 1 is correct which is not the case.  Option D is incorrect since it says that statement 2 is correct, which is not the case.

QUESTION: Statement: Police resorted to lathi charge to disperse the unlawful gathering of large number of people. The citizens forum called a general strike in protest against the police atrocities.
A. Statement | is the cause and statement II is its effect.
B. Statement Il is the cause and statement I is the effect
C. Both the statements I and Il are independent causes
D. Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes
EXPLANATION
Option A is correct since first, the police resorted to the lathi charge, then the strike was called.  Option B is incorrect since it states the opposite of what is the correct answer.  Option C is incorrect since there is a cause and effect relationship between the two statements. Option D is incorrect since there is a cause and effect relationship between the two statements.

QUESTION: Statement: The availability of imported fruits has increased in the indigenous market and so the demand for indigenous fruits has been decreased.  Conclusions: I. To help the indigenous producers of fruits, the Government should impose high import duty on these fruits, even if they are not of good quality.  II. The fruit vendors should stop selling imported fruits. So that the demand for indigenous fruits would be increased.
A. Both of the conclusions follow
B. None of the conclusions follow
C. Only conclusion I follows
D. Only conclusion II follows
EXPLANATION
Option B is correct since statement I is incorrect because firstly it is asking to impose import duties despite the indigenous fruits being of poor quality. This would harm the customers who will have to buy the imported fruits at higher prices just to get an acceptable quality of fruit. Hence, this doesnt follow. Also, statement II doesnt help since, it firstly harms the customers who are forced to go for a lesser quality fruit due to inaccessibility. Secondly, this reduces competition in the market (which is mostly considered a negative). Thirdly it doesnt solve the issue of the indigenous fruits being of poor quality.  Option A is correct since it states that both statements are correct, which is not the case. Option C is incorrect since it says that statement 1 is correct which is not the case. Option D is incorrect since it says that statement 2 is correct, which is not the case.

QUESTION: Discernible and Palpable have _____number of same letters.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 5
D. 4
EXPLANATION
Option B is correct since DISCERNIBLE AND PALPABLE have three same letters which are b, l, and e.  Option A is incorrect since it states that two letters are the same, which is not correct. Option C is incorrect since it states that five letters are the same, which is not correct. Option D is incorrect since it states that four letters are the same, which is not correct.

QUESTION: Dependent causes/ Independent causes: Statement: There is unprecedented increase in the number of young unemployed in comparison to the previous year. A large number of candidates submitted applications against an advertisement for the post of manager issued by a bank .
A. Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect
B. Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
C. Both the statements I and II are independent causes
D. Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes
EXPLANATION
An increase in the number of unemployed youth is bound to draw in huge crowds for a single vacancy.

QUESTION: Number Series: Look at this series 7,10,8,11,9,12. Which number do you think will be next?
A. 10
B. 12
C. 13
D. 7
EXPLANATION
It is a simple alternating addition and subtraction series. In the first pattern, 3 is added. In the second pattern, 2 is subtracted.

QUESTION: Complete the series: Which letter comes before T and after R?
A. B
B. C
C. S
D. D
EXPLANATION
The English Alphabet consists of 26 letters: A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J, K, L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, X, Y, Z. S comes after R and before T.

QUESTION: A police officer stationed along the route of a parade has been ordered not to allow cars to cross the route while the parade is in progress. An ambulance driver on an emergency run attempts to drive an ambulance across the route while the parade is passing. Under these circumstances, the officer should:
A. Ask the driver to wait while the officer calls headquarters and obtain a decision.
B. Stop the parade long enough to permit the ambulance to cross the street.
C. Direct the ambulance driver to the shortest detour available, which will add at least ten minutes to the run.
D. Hold up the ambulance in accordance with the order.
EXPLANATION
Without any knowledge of police rules, common sense dictates that saving lives is the number one priority. An ambulance on an emergency run is on a mission to save a life. Lifesaving takes precedence over the desire for an uninterrupted parade, despite the officer’s prior orders.

QUESTION: Making Judgements: A book cannot exist without
A. Education
B. Pictures
C. Pages
D. Qualification
EXPLANATION
A book can still exist if it doesn’t have pictures, it can be a reading book without pictures, it might be a book to read for leisure and not for education and it might not have any qualifications but it will still be a book. However, without pages, a book can physically not exist.

QUESTION: Series Completion: Look at this series: 2, 1, (1/2), (1/4), ... What number should come next?
A. (1/3)
B. (1/8)
C. (2/8)
D. (1/16)
EXPLANATION
The number is getting divided by 2 every time. 1/4 divided by 2 is 1/8

QUESTION: Statements and Actions: Statement The availability of imported fruits has increased in the indigenous market and so the demand for indigenous fruits has been decreased.  I. To help the indigenous producers of fruits, the Government should impose high import duty on these fruits, even if these are not of good quality.  II. The fruit vendors should stop selling imported fruits. So that the demand for indigenous fruits would be increased.
A. both of them follows
B. None of them follows
C. Only I follows
D. Only II follows
EXPLANATION
The ideas suggested in both I and II represent unfair means to cut competition. The correct way would be to devise methods and techniques such that the indigenous producers could produce better quality fruits and make them available in the market at prices comparable with those of the imported ones. Hence, neither I nor II follows.

QUESTION: Dependent causes/Independent causes: Statement: Police resorted to lathicharge to disperse the unlawful gathering of a large number of people. The citizens forum called a general strike in protest against the police atrocities.
A. Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.
B. Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effects
C. Both the statements I and II are independent causes
D. Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes
EXPLANATION
the strike caused a lot of people to gather in one place unlawfully so the police had no other option but to resort to assault with iron-bound bamboo sticks to control the crowd.

QUESTION: Statements and Actions: Statement The availability of imported fruits has increased in the indigenous market and so the demand for indigenous fruits has been decreased. I. To help the indigenous producers of fruits, the Government should impose high import duty on these fruits, even if these are not of good quality. II. The fruit vendors should stop selling imported fruits. So that the demand for indigenous fruits would be increased.
A. Both of them follows
B. None of them follows
C. Only I follows
D. Only II follows
EXPLANATION
The ideas suggested in both I and II represent unfair means to cut competition. The correct way would be to devise methods and techniques such that the indigenous producers could produce better quality fruits and make them available in the market at prices comparable with those of the imported ones. Hence, neither I nor II follows.

QUESTION: Complete the series: Eleven and skeleton have __ number of same letters.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 5
D. 4
EXPLANATION
“n” “l” and “e” are the only letters common in both.