PMC Paid Practice Tests Series 2021 With Explanation - Test 28

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Prepare the PMC Paid Practice Tests Series 2021 with our comprehensive past paper and explanation guide. Gain valuable insights into the exam format, question types, and essential topics covered. Our detailed explanations will help you understand the reasoning behind each answer, allowing you to strengthen your knowledge and improve your performance. Get a head start on your exam preparation and increase your chances of success with our PMC Paid Practice Tests Series 2021 past paper and explanation resource.

QUESTION: Choose the correct spelling of the word.
A. Fual
B. Fuel
C. Fule
D. Fuil
EXPLANATION
Other words are incorrect in terms of different meanings and spellings.

QUESTION: It _____ me a lot of money.
A. Costs
B. Cost
C. Costed
D. Is costing
EXPLANATION
The sentence is in the singular first person. “costs” refers to all of the pieces within that group (being plural), hence incorrect. costed is the past tense and the past participle of cost and means to estimate or determine the cost of something hence incorrect. cost is used to have as a price or cause to lose, suffer, or sacrifice” in past tense and past participle hence correct. ‘Is costing’ is in present tense hence incorrect.

QUESTION: Choose the correct spelling of the word.
A. Except
B. Exept
C. Axept
D. Except
EXPLANATION
Other words are incorrect in terms of different meanings and spellings.

QUESTION: My mother, along with others, ___________ worried.
A. Were
B. Are
C. Have
D. Was
EXPLANATION
As the sentence is in a past tense (the word “worried” is used), “was” is correct as it is in past tense used for third person singular.   “were” is used for both the third person plural past tense (they and we) and the second person past tense (you) hence incorrect.  Are is used to describe plural nouns however does not make grammatical sense when the sentence is said out loud.   Have is used for first and second person singular present and plural tenses and the third person plural present tense hence incorrect.

QUESTION: how are:
A. Howre
B. Howre
C. Howre
D. Howre
EXPLANATION
The correct contraction for How are is How’re. Using the apostrophe at the correct position, where the alphabet is removed is important.

QUESTION: Twenty years _________ the minimum age to fill this form.
A. Are
B. Is
C. Has
D. Have
EXPLANATION
As the subject is a singular noun (the word ‘form’ is used), the missing word should be IS. As the sentence is not in a third person singular, has is not used. ‘Are’ is used for plural nouns, and ‘have’ is used to express possession, ownership or acquisition, which is not required in this context.

QUESTION: I bought ____________ umbrella to go out in the rain.
A. A
B. An
C. The
D. No article
EXPLANATION
As the umbrella starts with a vowel sound, an is used. The indefinite article a is used before noun phrases when the noun or adjective that comes next begins with a consonant sound.  An is used when the noun or adjective that comes next begins with a vowel sound.  The is used for a definite article (incorrect in this case). Using no article will not make grammatical sense when the sentence is said out loud.

QUESTION: The two machines ______________ considerably. One has an electric motor, the other runs on oil.
A. Different
B. Differentiate
C. Differ
D. Difference
EXPLANATION
In this case, the two machines are being compared based on how different they are (on the premise of the way the two machines are run). ‘Different means to be distinct, separate, and in this context does not make grammatical sense hence is incorrect. ‘Differentiate means recognizing or ascertaining what makes (someone or something) different and in this context does not make grammatical sense hence is incorrect. ‘Differ means to be unlike or dissimilar and in this context makes grammatical sense hence is correct. ‘Difference means a point or way in which people or things are dissimilar and in this context does not make grammatical sense hence is incorrect.

QUESTION: I have already got a ______ at a hotel in Murree. We shall have no problems.
A. Prescription
B. Property
C. Reserve
D. Reservation
EXPLANATION
Prescriptions are associated with medications. Property means owning land/building, and in this case, it does not make sense.  Reserve means to arrange for (a room, seat, ticket, etc.) to be kept for the use of a particular person, and reservation is the action of reserving something.  In this context, reservation makes grammatical sense and is usually associated with hotels.

QUESTION: Which verb is NOT in the present tense?
A. She listened
B. She talks
C. She waits
D. She eats
EXPLANATION
For something to be in the present tense, it is happening now, and words end with an‘s. For past tenses, something has happened in the past and stopped, ending with an ed. As listened ends with an ‘ed’, it is in the past tense.

QUESTION: Choose the correct sentence.
A. I did not accompanied them
B. I do not accompanied them
C. I do not accompany them
D. I does not accompany them
EXPLANATION
‘Accompanied is in the past tense while ‘accompany is present. In order to make a proper sentence structure with correct tenses, C is the correct answer.

QUESTION: Which verb is NOT in the future tense?
A. He will go
B. He will eat
C. He will work
D. He eats
EXPLANATION
For something to be in the present tense, it is happening now and words end with a ‘s. For future tenses, the word will is used indicating the action happening in the future.

QUESTION: Innumerable
A. Limited
B. Weary
C. Countless
D. Harmless
EXPLANATION
Innumerable means too many to be counted. Limited means restricted in size, amount, or extent.  Weary means feeling or showing extreme tiredness. Countless means too many to be counted; very many.  Harmless means are inoffensive. As innumerable have the closest meaning to countless (synonyms), it is the correct answer.

QUESTION: How ridiculous this is!.
A. Declarative
B. Imperative
C. Interrogative
D. Exclamatory
EXPLANATION
The sentence is exclamatory as strong feelings/ emotions are expressed and an exclamation mark is used. As the sentence does not has a command/ order hence it is not imperative. It is not declarative as it does not express strong emotion with information. It is not interrogative as no questions are asked in the sentence and are not exclamatory as no strong feelings/ emotions are expressed.

QUESTION: If mountains are ________________ of trees, rains will soon wash the fertile topsoil down the slope to end as useless silt below.
A. Deforested
B. Afforested
C. Stripped
D.  Shortage
EXPLANATION
‘Stripped means to rip away and remove while ‘deforested means to cut down and ‘afforested means plant. ‘Shortage refers to a lack of a resource. In this case, stripped is used as it is referring to trees ripped away and not cut down.

QUESTION: Choose the correct spelling of the word
A. Possesion
B. Possession
C. Posesion
D. Possession
EXPLANATION
Other words are incorrect in terms of different meanings and spellings.

QUESTION: She will ______ her lesson for two months next week.
A. Has learnt
B. Have been learning
C. Has been learning
D. Has been learns
EXPLANATION
The sentence is in the present continuous tense.  ‘Has learned’ is past tense hence incorrect, ‘has been learning refers to a plural noun hence incorrect,  and ‘has been learning’ makes no grammatical sense when the sentence is said out loud and is in the present tense.

QUESTION: The baby was obviously getting too hot, then Sam did what he could to cool her.
A. Hot, then Sam did
B. Hot, Sam did
C. Hot; Sam, therefore, did
D. Hot; Sam therefore trying to do
EXPLANATION
As there are two related independent clauses, semicolons are used to join the clauses together. Colons are used to give emphasis, present dialogue, introduce lists and question marks are used in interrogative sentences.

QUESTION: I _____________ a letter now.
A. Write
B. Writing
C. Am writing
D. Am writing
EXPLANATION
As the sentence is in a present continuous tense (the word ‘now’ is used), ‘writing’ is the most suitable option.  As the subject ‘I; is singular, ‘am’ is used.

QUESTION: Your friend _____ (wait) for you for over an hour.
A. Wait
B. Waiting
C. Waited
D. Waits
EXPLANATION
The sentence is in the past tense, and waited is in the past tense hence correct. Wait doesnt make grammatical sense when the sentence is said out loud, waiting is a present continuous verb and waits is in the present tense.

QUESTION: Irreversible modifications require the synthesis of which of the following?
A. Enzymes
B. Carbohydrates
C. Vitamins
D. Proteins
EXPLANATION
Irreversible modifications require the synthesis of protein, example blood coagulation or clotting.

QUESTION: In some cases the blastomere can produce complete embryo the cleavage will be?
A. Spiral and determinate
B. Spiral and indeterminate
C. Radial and determinate
D. Radial and indeterminate
EXPLANATION
Image Source: https://slideplayer.com/slide/7062128/58

QUESTION: Which statement is incorrect?
A. In short day plants red light prevents flowering
B. In long day plants, red light promotes flowering
C. Leaf unrolling occurs in grasses
D. Henbane is a short day plant
EXPLANATION
Short-day Plants bloom when the length of daylight (the photoperiod) drops below a particular critical threshold, typically in late summer or autumn, after the equinox.  Examples of short-day plants include chrysanthemum, rice, soybean, onion, violet, Christmas cactus, and poinsettia. Long-day Plants flower only when the amount of daylight lasts longer than their critical threshold, typically in spring or early summer, before the equinox. Examples of these plants include aster, hibiscus, henbane, coneflower, lettuce, spinach, radish, sugar beet, and potato.

QUESTION: Which statement correctly outlines some of the main events in photosynthesis?
A. A 5C carbohydrate accepts carbon dioxide and is then reduced by NADPH derived from photophosphorylation
B. A 3C carbohydrate is regenerated and reduced by hydrogen molecules derived from photophosphorylation
C. Photolysis uses light to produce reduced NADP and oxygen which are used to reduce a 3C carbohydrate
D. Photolysis produces NADPH and ATP which are used to reduce a 5C carbohydrate
EXPLANATION
Ribulose Bisphosphate accepts carbon dioxide to form glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate, an unstable six-carbon compound, which breaks down to form triose phosphate and is also reduced in the process. Image Source: https://romeherrera.wixsite.com/photosynthesis/portraits

QUESTION: The average diameter of large viruses is approximately equal to:
A. 100 to 160 nm
B. 20 to 250 nm
C. 100 nm to 360 nm
D. Always below than 100 nm
EXPLANATION
Human viruses can vary in size but are generally in the range of 20–200 nm in diameter.

QUESTION: The alternative forms of same gene is called which of the following?
A. Locus
B. Gene
C. Allele
D. Phenotype
EXPLANATION
Variations of the same gene are called alleles. For example the gene for tallness in pea plants can have two alleles, L or l, L showing tall plant and l for dwarf plant.

QUESTION: Which statement is incorrect about ethylene production?
A. Climacteric is burst of respiratory activity in fruit ripening
B. It is associated with ethane production
C. It helps in fruit ripening
D. It helps in fruit set
EXPLANATION
Ethylene is a gaseous plant hormone that plays an important role in inducing the ripening process for many fruits, together with other hormones and signals. An unripe fruit generally has low levels of ethylene. As the fruit matures, ethylene is produced as a signal to induce fruit ripening.

QUESTION: Two species can avoid competition, and better use the environments resources by occupying different?
A. Adaptations
B. Polymorphism
C. Niches
D. Specialization
EXPLANATION
Two organisms can coexist if they have different niches, as then they will not be needing the same factors for life, and no competition will mean none of them will be disadvantaged and have the threat of going extinct.

QUESTION: The inflammation of bronchi or bronchioles is known as
A. Emphysema
B. Asthma
C. Pneumonia
D. Bronchitis
EXPLANATION
In bronchitis, due to smoker’s cough and overstimulation of goblet cells our airways inflame.

QUESTION: The type of plastids found in roots of plants:
A. Chloroplasts
B. Chromoplasts
C. Leucoplasts
D. All of them
EXPLANATION
Roots of plant contain leucoplast which are colourless plastids and act as storage of food.

QUESTION: Euplectella belongs to phylum
A. Porifera
B. Ctenophora
C. Echinodermata
D. None of the above
EXPLANATION
Image Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Venus%27_flower_basket Euplectella is a sponge; thus, it belongs to the Porifera phylum.

QUESTION: Cartilage is a form of:
A. Cardiac tissue
B. Connective tissue
C. Epithelial tissue
D. Nervous tissue
EXPLANATION
Image Source: https://protonstalk.com/skeletal-system/difference-between-bone-and-cartilage/ Cartilage is an important structural component of the body. It is a firm tissue but is softer and much more flexible than bone. Cartilage is a connective tissue found in many areas of the body, including Joints between bones, e.g. the elbows, knees and ankles. Ends of the ribs.

QUESTION: Enzyme-catalyzed modifications are?
A. Reversible
B. Irreversible
C. Both a and b
D. None of these
EXPLANATION
Enzyme-catalysed modifications can be reversible or irreversible; reversible modifications typically require different enzymes for the reverse reaction. Reversible modifications are typically associated with regulatory processes or in regulatory steps of metabolic and signalling pathways

QUESTION: The upward movement of sap by the xylem is:
A. Ascent of sap
B. Plasmolysis
C. Deplasmolysis
D. Guttation
EXPLANATION
The ascent of sap in the xylem tissue of plants is the upward movement of water and minerals from the root to the upper part of the plant body. Image Source: https://www.brainkart.com/article/Ascent-of-Sap-and-its-Events---An-Overview_39732

QUESTION: The human naked eye can differentiate between two points which are how much apart?
A. 1mm
B. 0.1mm
C. 2nm
D. 1dm
EXPLANATION
The human eye can distinguish the two objects as close as 0.1 mm distance apart. So the resolving power of a human eye is 0.1 mm.

QUESTION: The term that should be last in the reflex sequence is:
A. Receptor
B. Effector
C. Sensory neuron
D.  Motor neuron
EXPLANATION
Receptor recieves the initial stimulation, while sensory neuron carries to CNS and motor neuron carries the impulse to the effector muscle which produces the response.

QUESTION: The Prokaryotic Life is characterized by:
A. Absence of locomotion
B. Absence of nuclear envelope
C. Absence of Protein
D. Absence of nuclear material
EXPLANATION
Prokaryotes such as bacteria do not have a nuclear envelope. Their genetic material is naked in the cytoplasm.

QUESTION: What is the shape of the TMV Virus?
A. Rod
B. Spherical
C. Tadpole
D. Helical
EXPLANATION
Image Source: https://www.brainkart.com/article/Tobacco-Mosaic-Virus-(TMV)-and-its-Structure_32835/ The Tobacco Mosaic Virus has a rod shape, as shown in the image.

QUESTION: Excretory system of platyhelminthes consists of which of the following?
A. Nephridia
B. Flame cells
C. Malpighian tubules
D. Nephrons
EXPLANATION
Answer: A flame cell is a specialized excretory cell found in the simplest freshwater invertebrates, Platyhelminthes which include flatworms, rotifers and nemerteans; these are the simplest animals to have a dedicated excretory system. The beating of these flagella resembles a flame, giving the cell its name. Image source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Flame_cell

QUESTION: The organelle serving as a primary packaging area for molecules that will be distributed throughout the cell is?
A. Vacuole
B. Plastids
C. Lysosomes
D. Golgi apparatus
EXPLANATION
Golgi apparatus forms vacuoles which transport materials in and out of the cell.

QUESTION: Changes in sarcomere length are due to the filaments pulled along the thick filaments in the direction of the:
A. H zone
B. M line
C. Z line
D. I band
EXPLANATION
The pulling of the globular heads causes the thin filaments to move towards the centre of the sarcomere, which is the M line. Image Source: https://www.britannica.com/science/sarcomere

QUESTION: The ultimate source of all the change is?
A. Migration
B. Mutation
C. Genetic
D. Selection
EXPLANATION
Mutation causes changes in the sequence of bases in DNa, producing structurally different polypeptides and thus, causing changes.

QUESTION: What affect do enzymes have on the activation energy of a reaction?
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. No affect
D. Increases or decreases depending upon individual enzyme
EXPLANATION
Enzymes decrease the activation energy of a reaction, making reactants more easily form products, thus increasing the rate of the reaction.

QUESTION: Which of the following is not present in mitochondria?
A. Enzymes
B. Coenzymes
C. Ribosomes
D. Thylakoid
EXPLANATION
Thylakoid membrane is the inner membrane in a chloroplast not in a mitochondria.

QUESTION: The flow of lymph is always towards?
A. Pancreatic duct
B. Bile duct
C. Thoracic duct
D. Parotid duct
EXPLANATION
The function of the thoracic duct is to transport lymph back into the circulatory system. Interstitial fluid is collected by lymph capillaries from the interstitial space. Lymph then moves through lymphatic vessels to lymph nodes. Image Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Thoracic_duct

QUESTION: Virus attachment requires energy?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Provided by cell usually
D. Provided by virus machinery
EXPLANATION
Virus simply attach to complimentary receptors on a cell’s membrane, this does not require energy.

QUESTION: Which structure of protein gives information about the folding of a protein?
A. Primary structure
B. Secondary structure
C. Tertiary structure
D. Quaternary structure
EXPLANATION
Tertiary structure refers to the folding of the secondary structure of a polypeptide. The folding gives it its 3D shape and structure. Bonds like disulfide bridges, ionic bonds, and hydrophobic interactions form to give the folding shape.

QUESTION: The dark reaction in photosynthesis where sugars are synthesized are called?
A. Krebs cycle
B. Calvin Cycle
C. Galvin cycle
D. Glycolysis
EXPLANATION
The Calvin cycle is a process that plants and algae use to turn carbon dioxide from the air into sugar, the food autotrophs need to grow. Energy to fuel chemical reactions in this sugar-generating process is provided by ATP and NADPH, chemical compounds which contain the energy plants have captured from sunlight. Image Source: https://eartheclipse.com/biology/calvin-cycle.html

QUESTION: Which of the following would not be found in a prokaryotic cell?
A. Mitochondria
B. RNA
C. Ribosomes
D. Plasma membrane
EXPLANATION
Organelles with membrane are not found in prokaryotes, and mitochondria is a membanous organelle.

QUESTION: A monohybrid cross yielded 3:1 in F2. What could be mode of inheritance?
A. Segregation
B. Independent assortment
C. Both a and b
D. None of these
EXPLANATION
This meant that the pair of alleles encoding the traits in each parental plant had separated or segregated from one another during the formation of the reproductive cells, and thus 3:1 ratio was formed after two generational crosses.

QUESTION: Which of these is best developed in birds?
A. Cerebellum
B. Cerebrum
C. Medulla
D. Thalamus
EXPLANATION
The major part of the mid-brain of a bird or lizard is the cerebellum. The cerebellum plays a major role in muscular coordination and birds require it for flying and using their wings etc. Image Source: https://www.istockphoto.com/vector/the-brain-of-birds-gm1174232738-326486587

QUESTION: The existance of microbes was confirmed by:
A. Robert Kuchs work
B. Louis Pasteurs work
C. Linneauss work
D. Ernst Hackels work
EXPLANATION
During his experiments in the 1860s, French chemist Louis Pasteur developed the modern germ theory. He proved that food spoiled because of contamination by invisible bacteria, not because of spontaneous generation. Pasteur stipulated that bacteria caused infection and disease.

QUESTION: One of the most important molecule found in living organisms is ATP. What is its major function?
A. Energy source of the cell
B. Coenzyme
C. Cofactor
D. Both Options A and B are correct
EXPLANATION
ATP, adenose triose phosphate, acts as an energy source. The phosphate bonds are hyrdolysed to give high amounts of energy.

QUESTION: Which of the following is not vestigial organ of man?
A. Appendix
B. Coccyx
C. Both a and b
D. None of these
EXPLANATION
Vestigial organs are non-functioning and appendix and coccyx both do not function so are classified as vestigial organs.

QUESTION: On which of the following component of chloroplast chlorophyll is arranged?
A. Cell membrane
B. Matrix
C. Thylakoid
D. Stroma
EXPLANATION
Thylakoid membrane has pigments arranged in light-harvesting clusters called photosystems, which also include chlorophyll. Image Source: https://www.majordifferences.com/2013/12/difference-between-photosystem-i-and.html

QUESTION: During muscle contraction, which parts of a sarcomere change in length?
A. H zone and myosin
B. H zone and actin
C. I band and A band
D. H zone and I band
EXPLANATION
As the muscle contracts, the thin filaments are pulled towards the M line by the crosslinks formed with the globular heads of myosin filaments. The I band decreases and the H band decreases. Image Source: https://www.majordifferences.com/2013/12/difference-between-photosystem-i-and.html

QUESTION: What does ATP provide during photosynthesis?
A. Mechanical energy
B. Chemical energy
C. Physical energy
D. All of these
EXPLANATION
ATP provides chemical energy which is them converted into all of the given options as work done.

QUESTION: The isolation of different cellular components to determine their chemical composition can be achieved by?
A. Cell differentiation
B. Chromatography
C. Cell fractionation
D. All of these
EXPLANATION
It is a process where cells are broken up and the different organelles the cells contain are separated out. Image Source: https://slideplayer.com/slide/13487745/

QUESTION: The process that has transformed life on earth from its earliest forms to vast diversity is?
A. Mutation
B. Evolution
C. Migration
D. Genetic drift
EXPLANATION
Evolution is the change in the characteristics of a species over several generations and relies on the process of natural selection Evolution brings genetic variation in a population, which affects the physical characteristics (phenotype) of an organism and makes them more adapted and suited to the current selection pressures.

QUESTION: The filamentous appendages called pilli are present only on?
A. Gram - positive bacteria
B. Gram - negative bacteria
C. Chemo synthetic bacteria
D. None of above
EXPLANATION
The pili of Gram-negative bacteria are long extracellular polymers that mediate diverse functions, such as bacterial attachment, movement and substrate transport.

QUESTION: A man with type A– blood and a woman with type AB+ blood have a child. Which blood type is impossible for that child to have?
A. A-.
B. B-.
C. AB+.
D. O-.
EXPLANATION
Yes, it is impossible for child to have O- because the child will get either A or B from mother for sure, so being homozygous for O is impossible as two alleles not present in parents.

QUESTION: End of menstrual cycle in old age is called?
A. andropause.
B. gametopause.
C. menopause.
D. all of these.
EXPLANATION
Menopause is the time that marks the end of your menstrual cycles. Its diagnosed after youve gone 12 months without a menstrual period. Menopause can happen in your 40s or 50s.

QUESTION: The book name in which Darwin published the theory of evolution?
A. the origin of species by natural selection.
B. the origin of species.
C. the evolution of species.
D. the evolution of species by means of natural selection.
EXPLANATION
On the Origin of Species by Means of Natural Selection, or the Preservation of Favoured Races in the Struggle for Life) published on 24 November 1859, is a work of scientific literature by Charles Darwin that is considered to be the foundation of evolutionary biology. Darwins book introduced the scientific theory that populations evolve over the course of generations through a process of natural selection.

QUESTION: The genes which do not follow law of independent assortment?
A. Recessive genes.
B. Dominant genes.
C. crossed genes.
D. linked genes.
EXPLANATION
Linked genes or autosomal genes are present on the same chromosome so are inherited together are are not assorted independently.

QUESTION: Which of the following statements explains why viruses are only able to multiply in living cells?
A. Their binary fission is controlled by host cell genes.
B. Virus do not possess the necessary components for self-replication.
C. DNA is only able to replicate inside living cells.
D. They have only enough genetic information for DNA replication.
EXPLANATION
Viruses are a cellular entities, with only an enevlope and nucliec acids. They do not have enzymes or the required nucletodies or protiens for reproduction.

QUESTION: The hormone that is released from the testes is?
A. progesterone.
B. estrogen.
C. testosterone.
D. all of these.
EXPLANATION
The testes are responsible for making testosterone, the primary male sex hormone, and for producing sperm. Within the testes are coiled masses of tubes called seminiferous tubules. These tubules are responsible for producing the sperm cells through a process called spermatogenesis.

QUESTION: Which group of animals is not a deuterostome?
A. Echinodermata.
B. Arthropoda.
C. Mollusca.
D. Both B and C.
EXPLANATION
Arthropoda and mollusca do not have their blastophore turn into anus and not mouth.

QUESTION: The number of RBCs at high altitude will?
A. Increase in size.
B. Increase in number.
C. Decrease in size.
D. Decrease in number.
EXPLANATION
At high altitude, the oxygen partial pressure is low. Thus a higher RBC count is needed, so greater oxygen can be transported to muscle and anaerobic respiration can be prevented.

QUESTION: Which of the following is a water soluble vitamin?
A. Riboflavin.
B. Vitamin C.
C. Niacin.
D. All of these options are correct.
EXPLANATION
There are nine water-soluble vitamins: the B vitamins - folate, thiamine, riboflavin, niacin, pantothenic acid, biotin, vitamin B6, vitamin B12, and vitamin C.

QUESTION: Cooperation of the two photosystems of the chloroplast is required for?
A. ATP sysnthesis.
B. reduction of NADP.
C. cyclic photophosphorylation.
D. oxidation of the reaction center of photosystem.
EXPLANATION
In the dark reaction, the light energy absorbed in the photosystems in used for photolysis of water and accelerating electrons along the electron transport chain. In the process of photolysis, 2 protons are also made which are accepted by NADP, it reduces to form NADPH2.

QUESTION: The rise in blood glucose concentration occurs due to which hormone?
A. glucagon.
B. glucose.
C. insulin.
D. all of these.
EXPLANATION
Glucagon is the hormone which converts stored sugar in the form glycogen to glucose which is taken up by the bloodstream and as a result, the blood glucose conc rises.

QUESTION: A researcher has designed a new type of inhibitor that binds at the active site of an enzyme. What type of inhibition does this molecule display?
A. Uncompetitive inhibition.
B. Noncompetitive inhibition.
C. Competitive inhibition.
D. all of these.
EXPLANATION
Competetive inhibition because the inhibitor competes with the substrate for binding with the substrate.

QUESTION: Chlorosis, which is represented by yellowish hue on the leaves results from which of the following?
A. Accumulation of toxic waste products in leaves.
B. Deficiency of chlorophyll.
C. Short supplies of mineral nutrients in the soil.
D. all of these.
EXPLANATION
Chlorosis is a yellowing of normally green leaves due to all of the reasons. Chlorotic plants may only show symptoms on one or two branches, or the whole plant may be affected. The first indication of chlorosis is a paling of the green color of the foliage, followed later in the season by a general yellowing.

QUESTION: All of the following statements are true regarding the attachment or adsorption of the virion to the host cell EXCEPT that?
A. for naked virions, the surface capsid proteins are responsible for binding to a specific cell receptor.
B. for enveloped viruses, the spikes are responsible for binding to a specific cell receptor.
C. cell lacking a receptor for a specific virus is not infected by that virus.
D. All of the above.
EXPLANATION
Attachment, or adsorption, occurs between the viral particle and the host cell membrane. A hole forms in the cell membrane, then the virus particle or its genetic contents are released into the host cell, where viral reproduction may commence The hold can be produced by all of the following ways.

QUESTION: What would be the resolving power of the objective length in a microscope if the eyepiece is 10X and total magnification is 40X?
A. 4.
B. 10.
C. 40.
D. 400.
EXPLANATION
Since total magnification is M = Me x Mo. so Mo = M/Me. Mo = 40/10 = 4.

QUESTION: The synthesis of ATP in the presence of oxygen is called?
A. respiration.
B. calvin cycle.
C. oxidative phosphorylation.
D. chemiosmosis.
EXPLANATION
Oxidative phosphorylation is the process by which ATP synthesis is coupled to the movement of electrons through the mitochondrial electron transport chain and the associated consumption of oxygen.

QUESTION: Which of the following is non-cellular in most cases in animals?
A. Sclerenchyma.
B. Chlorenchyma.
C. Mesoderm.
D. Mesenchyme.
EXPLANATION
Mesenchyme is a type of animal tissue comprised of loose cells embedded in a mesh of proteins and fluid, called the extracellular matrix.

QUESTION: A sample of RNA is sequenced and found to contain 22% adenine. Which of the following conclusions can also be drawn about the sample?
A. 22% uracil.
B. 22% cytosine.
C. 22% thymine.
D. 22% guanine.
EXPLANATION
Adenine binds with Uracil, so will be present in equal amounts.

QUESTION: Which of the following joint is also known as ellipsoidal joint?
A. Saddle joint.
B. Condyloid joint.
C. Ball and socket joint.
D. None of these.
EXPLANATION
A synovial joint in which an oval-shaped process of one bone fits into an elongated or ellipsoidal cavity of the other, allowing movements such as flexion, extension, abduction and adduction. Image Source: https://www.slideshare.net/DeepakKumarGupta2/joints-50519302.

QUESTION: The process of recombination in prokaryotes takes place in which of the following ways?
A. transformation.
B. conjugation.
C. transduction.
D. all of these.
EXPLANATION
Prokaryotic cells can undergo recombination through one of these three processes: Conjugation is where genes are donated from one organism to another after they have been in contact. Transformation: This is where the organism acquires new genes by taking up naked DNA from its surroundings.Transduction is gene transfer that is mediated by viruses. Viruses called bacteriophages attack bacteria and carry the genes from one bacterium to another.

QUESTION: Which of the following is incorrect for ascent of sap?
A. water potential.
B. cohesion tension.
C. root pressure.
D. imbibition.
EXPLANATION
The theory states that transpiration pull or tension, cohesion property of water, and hydration of the cell walls (i.e., adhesion) are collectively responsible for the ascent of sap. Water movement through the xylem is a bulk flow caused by ΔΨp (pressure difference) between one end of the system and the other.

QUESTION: Normal human blood is about:
A. 15 ml/100 ml of blood.
B. 19.6 ml/100 ml of blood.
C. 20 ml/ 100 ml of blood.
D. 200 ml/100 ml of blood.
EXPLANATION
Each gram of hemoglobin can bind 1.34 ml of oxygen; therefore, there is normally about 19.5 ml O2/100 ml blood bound to hemoglobin in normal arterial blood (1.34 ml O2/g x 15 g x 0.97).

QUESTION: The oldest mineral discovered so far is which of the following, which dates back to 4.4 billion years.
A. iron.
B. zircon.
C. diamond.
D. cadmium.
EXPLANATION
Zircon is the oldest found mineral.

QUESTION: These are largest animal viruses:
A. HIV.
B. poxviruses.
C. HBV.
D. covid-19.
EXPLANATION
Poxviruses are brick or oval-shaped viruses with large double-stranded DNA genomes. Poxviruses exist throughout the world and cause disease in humans and many other types of animals. Poxvirus infections typically result in the formation of lesions, skin nodules, or disseminated rash.

QUESTION: The experiment that simulated conditions thought to be present on the early earth.
A. Hershey Chase experiment.
B. Geiger Marsden experiment.
C. Schiehallion experiment.
D. Miller–Urey experiment.
EXPLANATION
The Miller–Urey experiment (or Miller experiment) was a chemical experiment that simulated the conditions thought at the time (1952) to be present on the early Earth and tested the chemical origin of life under those conditions.

QUESTION: Enzymes are produced in inactive form by the cell and enclosed in which of the following?
A. mesosomes.
B. lysosomes.
C. peroxisomes.
D. all of these.
EXPLANATION
Lysosomes have enzymes such nucleases, proteases, etc.

QUESTION: What is the chemical characteristic of auxins?
A. Indole propionic acid.
B. Indole carboxylic acid.
C. Indole acetaldehyde.
D. Indole acetic acid.
EXPLANATION
Indole-3-acetic acid (IAA) is an auxin produced by terrestrial plants which influences development through a variety of cellular mechanisms, such as altering cell orientation, organ development, fertility, and cell elongation.

QUESTION: In the male reproductive tract, sperm cells follow a specific path. Which of the following do sperm cells enter after traveling through the epididymis?
A. Urethra.
B. Seminiferous tubules.
C. Ejaculatory duct.
D. Vas deferens.
EXPLANATION
Sperm is forcefully expelled from the tail of the epididymis into the deferent duct. Sperm then travels through the vas deferens through up the spermatic cord into the pelvic cavity, over the ureter to the prostate behind the bladder. Image Source: https://www.visiblebody.com/learn/reproductive/male-reproductive-structures.

QUESTION: Electric power is:
A. Rate of electric work done per unit time
B. Voltage per unit time
C. Electric charge per unit time
D. Current per unit time
EXPLANATION
Electric power is defined as: “The rate at which the battery is supplying electrical energy is the power output or electrical power of the battery.” Electrical power= Energy supplied / Time taken

QUESTION: Which among the following shows the particle nature of light?
A. Interference
B. Reflection
C. Polarization
D. Photoelectric effect
EXPLANATION
Interference shows the wave nature of light whereas photoelectric effect shows the particle nature of light.

QUESTION: A fraction of internal energy is due to the molecular vibration, which is different in different states of matter. Which of the following gives the correct order of fraction of internal energy due to molecular vibration?
A. Solid > gas > liquid
B. Gas > liquid > solid
C. Solid > liquid > gas
D. Gas > liquid > solid
EXPLANATION
Particles of solid are close to each other, and when they vibrate, they create internal energy, while the particles of gas are away from each other, so the fraction of internal energy is less.  On the other hand, liquids have an intermediate fraction of internal energy. So, the order of a fraction of internal energy is solid > liquid > gas.

QUESTION: What is the duration of one cycle known as:
A. Period
B. Cycle
C. Instantaneous value
D. Sin wave
EXPLANATION
The time/ duration of one complete cycle is known as period.

QUESTION: The speed of sound in air is approximately:
A. 1500 m/s
B. 5000 m/s
C. 330 m/s
D. 50 m/s
EXPLANATION
Remember that the speed of sound in air is approximately 330 m/s.

QUESTION: Formula for Power is?
A. P=IV
B. P=V/I
C. p= V+I
D. p=VQ
EXPLANATION
Power has the following formulas: P= VI P= I^2R P= V^2/R

QUESTION: Isotopes of an element have a different number of:
A. Proton
B. Neutron
C. Electron
D. Atom
EXPLANATION
Isotopes of an element have the same number of protons but different number of neutrons in their nuclei. For example; Uranium has two isotopes, uranium-235 and uranium-238.

QUESTION: In Thermodynamics zeroth law is related with?
A. Work
B. Energy
C. Thermal equilibrium
D. Entropy
EXPLANATION
When system A and B are in thermal equilibrium with system C then there must be a thermal equilibrium between A and B systems. This is called the zeroth law of thermodynamics.

QUESTION: In a half wave rectification,during negative cycle of the wave the diode is?
A. Reversed biased
B. Forward biased
C. Potential barrier
D. None of these
EXPLANATION
In a half wave rectification, during the positive half cycle the diode is forward biased and during the negative half cycle the diode is reverse biased.

QUESTION: If the nuclear radius of Al-27 is 3.6 fm, the approximate nuclear radius of Cu-64 in fermi is?
A. 1.2 gm
B. 2.4 fm
C. 3.6 fm
D. 4.8 fm
EXPLANATION
By looking at the atomic numbers of Al and Cu, we can predict easily that copper has a greater number of protons than aluminium. So, its nuclear radius of Cu-64 in fermi would be greater than 3.6 fm. So, only d can be correct.

QUESTION: Consider a negative point charge is moving along a straight-line path directly toward a stationary positive point charge. Which aspect(s) of the electric force on the negative point charge will remain constant as it moves?
A. Direction
B. Magnitude
C. Both direction and magnitude
D. Neither direction and magnitude
EXPLANATION
As we are told, the negative charge is moving along a straight line, so the direction remains the same.

QUESTION: Decrease in velocity per unit time is called:
A. Acceleration
B. Positive acceleration
C. Deceleration
D. Uniform acceleration
EXPLANATION
Deceleration is defined as the decrease in velocity per unit time.

QUESTION: The temperature coefficient of resistance is expressed in :
A. °C
B. °C-1
C. m°C-1
D. None of these
EXPLANATION
Fractional change in resistance per kelvin is known as the temperature coefficient of resistance. It is expressed as `C-1.

QUESTION: The units of electric intensity are:
A. Volt / meter or newton / coulomb
B. Volt / meter or meter / coulomb
C. Volt / coulomb or newton / coulomb
D. Joule / meter or newton / coulomb
EXPLANATION
Electric intensity has these two units: volt/ meter or newton /coulomb.

QUESTION: In compton׳s scattering process , wavelength of scattered X-rays :
A. Remains same
B. Increases
C. Decreases
D. None of these
EXPLANATION
In the Compton scattering process, the wavelength of scattered X-rays increases than the initial wavelength.

QUESTION: If momentum is increased by 20% then K.E. increase by :
A. 0.44
B. 0.55
C. 0.66
D. 0.77
EXPLANATION
K.E’= (p+20/100p)2 / 2m = p^2(1+0.20)2 / 2m = p^2(1.20)2 / 2m = p^2(1.44) / 2m = p2(1+0.44) / 2m = (p^2/ 2m) +(0.44p^2/ 2m) K.E’= K.E + 0.44 K. E

QUESTION: Why x-rays are used in crystallography?
A. To prevent interference
B. To prevent diffraction
C. To perform interference
D. To perform diffraction
EXPLANATION
To perform diffraction of light, X-rays are used in crystallography.

QUESTION: The value of permittivity of free space is:
A. 8.85 x 10^-12 C^2 / (N.m^2)
B. 8.85 x 10^-12 (N.m^2)/C^2
C. 9.9 x 10^-12 C^2 / (N.m^2)
D. 9.9 x 10^12 C^2 / (N.m^2)
EXPLANATION
Remember that the value of permittivity of free space is 8.85(10^-12) C^2/(N.m^2).

QUESTION: Four 100 W bulbs are connected in parallel across 200 V supply line. If one bulb gets fused:
A. No bulb will light
B. All the four bulbs will light
C. Rest of three bulbs will light
D. Above B and C
EXPLANATION
When bulbs are connected in parallel, they have separate electric supply. So, when one bulb gets fused the rest of three bulbs will light.

QUESTION: Centre tape rectifier circuit consists of ______ diode.
A. 1
B. 200%
C. 300%
D. 400%
EXPLANATION
A Center tapped full wave rectifier has two diodes while a general full wave rectifier has 4 diodes.

QUESTION: If a projectile is launched with 3m/s velocity at 60 degree angle then at highest point its horizontal velocity is?
A. 3 m/s
B. 2m/s
C. 1.5 m/s
D. 1.8 m/s
EXPLANATION
If a projectile is launched with 3m/s velocity at a 60degree angle, then at the highest point, its the horizontal velocity is: vx = Vi cos o vx = (3) (cos 60) vx = (3) (0.5) vx = 1.5 m/s

QUESTION: Peak voltage in the output of full wave rectifier is 10V so dc component of output voltage is:
A. 10√2
B. 20/√2
C. 20/π
D. 20π
EXPLANATION
As vdc = 2 vac / pi vdc = 2(10) / pi vdc = 20 / pi

QUESTION: Acceleration of rolling object is zero at _________ point of hill.
A. Highest
B. Lowest
C. Middle
D. None of these
EXPLANATION
According to projectile motion, acceleration of an object is zero at the highest point.

QUESTION: The spin of quarks is?
A. 1
B. 2
C. Half
D. Quarter
EXPLANATION
The spin of quarks is half (½).

QUESTION: Under a cyclic path, internal energy after complete cycle is same as?
A. 2(initial)
B. Initial heat
C. Initial internal energy
D. Initial work
EXPLANATION
Internal energy in a closed path is constant. So, the internal energy after a complete cycle under a circular cycle is the same as initial internal energy.

QUESTION: Two α-particles have the ratio of their velocities as 3 : 2 on entering the field. If they move in different circular paths, then the ratio of the radii of their paths is:
A. 2 : 3
B. 3 : 2
C. 4 : 9
D. 9 : 4
EXPLANATION
Fc = Fm (mv2/r) = qvB ⇒ r = mv/qB Given, (v1/v2) = 3/2 (r1/r2) = (mv1/qB)/(mv2/qB) (r1/r2) = (v1/v2) As we can see that the velocities and radii are directly proportional to each other, so the ratio between the radii is the same as the ratio between the velocity = 3:2.

QUESTION: For anti-clockwise rotations direction of angular velocity is:
A. Positive
B. Negative
C. Zero
D. Infinite
EXPLANATION
For anti-clockwise rotations direction of angular velocity is positive and for clockwise rotations direction of angular velocity is negative.

QUESTION: The current passing through a resistor in a circuit is 1 A when the voltage across the same resistor is 10 V. What is the value of current when the voltage across the resistor is 8 V?
A. 0.8A
B. 8A
C. 80A
D. 18A
EXPLANATION
As; R= V/I R= 10/1 R= 10 ohm Now; I= V/R I= 8/10 I= 0.8 A

QUESTION: What is the radius of circular path, if particle has mass m and charge q:
A. r = qb/m
B. r = mv/B
C. r= mv/qB
D. r = mvr/qB
EXPLANATION
As; Fc = Fm (mv2/r) = qvB ⇒ r = mv/qB

QUESTION: The fusion reaction is almost ____ times more stronger than fission reaction.
A. Two times
B. Ten times
C. Hundred times
D. Thousand times
EXPLANATION
Remember that the fusion reaction is almost thousand times stronger than the fission reaction.

QUESTION: Faradays law explains how electric field will interact with:
A. Electric field
B. Magnetic field
C. Battery
D. None of these
EXPLANATION
According to Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction: “The average emf induced in a conducting coil of N loops is equal to the negative of the rate at which the magnetic flux through the coil is changing with time.”

QUESTION: A 500 W electric heater is used to heat 1 kg of water without energy losses. The specific heat capacity of water is 4.2 kJ kg K . What is the time taken to heat the water from 25 °C to 75 °C?
A. 7 seconds
B. 42 seconds
C. 7 minutes
D. 420 minutes
EXPLANATION
Mass of water(m)= 1 kg Specific heat(S)= 4.2 kJ/kg Temperature difference (T) = 75°-25°= 50°C= 50 K The heat required to change temperature is given by: MST = 1* 4.2* 50 kJ = 210 kJ = 210000 J(since 1kJ= 1000 J) Heat gave by 500 W heater= Power* time where power= 500 W => Heat= 500*t => 210000= 500t => t = 210000/500 s = 420 seconds Therefore, the heater will take 420 seconds to heat water from 25°C to 75° C.

QUESTION: The voltage turn ratio of step down transformer is:
A. 1:2
B. 1:3
C. 2:1
D. 2:5
EXPLANATION
The voltage in a step down transformer.

QUESTION: In which rectifier ripple factor is less?
A. Full wave
B. Half wave
C. Both a) and b)
D. None of them
EXPLANATION
In a full wave rectifier, lesser ripples are there in the output signal as compared to the half wave rectifier.

QUESTION: Farad is defined as:
A. Newton / volt
B. Coulomb / volt
C. Coulomb / joule
D. Coulomb / newton
EXPLANATION
Farad is the unit of capacitance. As; C= Q/V So, Farad= Coulomb/ volt.

QUESTION: Radioactive material decays by simultaneous emission of two particles with respective half-lives 1620 and 810 years. What is the time, in years, after which one-fourth of the material remains?
A. 2430 years
B. 1080 years
C. 3240 years
D. 4260 years
EXPLANATION
λ=ln2/T Now, λ1+λ2=ln2/T1+ln2/T2 and the effective half-life is 1/T=1/T1+1/T2 1/T=1/1620+1/810 1/T=1+2/1620 T=540 Therefore, the number of half-lives is n=time of decay/effective half−life n=t/540 Now according to the question, N=N○½^n Therefore, N/N0=½^2=½^(t/540) ½^2=½^t/540 2=t/540 And; t=1080 Therefore, the time in years after which one-fourth of the material remains is 1080 years.

QUESTION: What is the atomic number and mass number of Helium?
A. A=4, Z=2
B. A=2 Z=4
C. A=1 Z=1
D. A=3, Z=1
EXPLANATION
Helium has mass number equal to 4 and atomic number equal to 2.

QUESTION: Which of the following statements about speed of sound v, and temperature is correct:
A. V is directly related to temperature
B. V is directly related to square root of temperature
C. V is directly related to absolute temperature
D. V is directly related to square root of absolute temperature
EXPLANATION
As; Vt/V○=√(T/T○) The formula clearly shows that the speed of sound varies directly as the square root of absolute temperature.

QUESTION: A force of F = 20 + 10y N is acting in y direction, work done by this force to move the particle from y= 0 to y = 1m?
A. 20 J
B. 15 J
C. 5 J
D. 25 J
EXPLANATION
Work done by the variable force is W=∫yf/yi Fdy Here, yi =0,yf =1m, ∴W=∫1/0 (20+10y)dy=[20y+ 10y]dy =[20y+(10y^2/2)1/0 =25J

QUESTION: The efficiency of the heat engine can be increased by:
A. Decreasing the temperature of high temperature reservoir
B. Increasing the temperature of high temperature reservoir
C. Increasing the temperature of low temperature reservoir
D. Increasing the temperature of both high temperature reservoir and low temperature reservoir
EXPLANATION
The efficiency of a Carnot engine depends on the temperature of hot and cold reservoirs. The larger the temperature difference between the two reservoirs, the greater the efficiency. So, the efficiency of a heat engine can be increased either by increasing the temperature of a high-temperature reservoir or decreasing the temperature of a low-temperature reservoir.

QUESTION: What is the unit of frequency?
A. 1/Hertz
B. 1/ second^2
C. Second
D. Hertz
EXPLANATION
As; f=1/T The S.I unit of frequency is Hertz(Hz).

QUESTION: As compared to thin wires, thick wires have?
A. More resistance
B. No resistance
C. Less resistance
D. Same resistance
EXPLANATION
As; R=p L/A So, the resistance of a wire is inversely proportional to its thickness, so thick wires have less resistance, and thin wires have more resistance.

QUESTION: In the VT diagram slope of curve is:
A. R
B. nR/P
C. P
D. R/P
EXPLANATION
As; ideal gas law states that PV= nRT So, V/T= nR/P In the V/T diagram, the slope of the curve represents nR/P.

QUESTION: A half wave rectifier is operating from 50 Hz mains. Fundamental frequency of ripple will be:
A. 100 Hz
B. 25 Hz
C. 200Hz
D. 50 Hz
EXPLANATION
In a half-wave rectifier, the ripple frequency of the output remains the same. So, if a half wave rectifier is operating from 50 Hz mains, the fundamental frequency of ripple will be the same i.e., 50Hz.

QUESTION: If magnetic field is given by B= (2i + 3j -8k) and a loop of area 10 sq.m is placed in field in y-z plane , max flux will be:
A. -20 wb
B. 30 wb
C. 20 wb
D. 80 wb
EXPLANATION
As the loop is placed in the y-z plane, the flux will be in the x-plane. So, B= 2 and A= 10. We are told that maximum flux means no need to discuss the angle: ø=B.A ø= 2×10 ø= 20wb.

QUESTION: Which of the following cases (if any) requires the greatest amount of heat? In each case the material is the same.
A. 1.5 kg of the material is to be heated by 7.0 C°
B. 3.0 kg of the material is to be heated by 3.5 C°
C. 0.50 kg of the material is to be heated by 21 C°
D. The amount of heat required is the same in each of the three previous cases
EXPLANATION
The heat required in each case is the same equal to the molar-specific heat of the material. In the second option, as the amount of material doubles, the temperature is halved, while in the third option, as the temperature is decreased 3 X from 1.5 kg, the temperature is increased 3 X from 7C°, the product of mass and temperature is the same in the three cases.  So, the heat required is also the same in all three cases.

QUESTION: Ten complete waves passes through a point in 2 seconds. If the wavelength is 20 cm, what is the speed of the wave?
A. 1 m/s
B. 10 cm/s
C. 2 m/s
D. 40 cm/s
EXPLANATION
The total wavelength of 10 waves= no. of waves× wavelength = 10× 0.2 m = 2m As; v= wavelength/ time v= 2m/ 2s v= 1 m/s.

QUESTION: Two wires of copper are of the same length but have different diameters.  When they are connected in series across a battery, the heat generated is H1 When connected in parallel across the same battery, the heat generated during the same time is H2 Then:
A. H1 = H2
B. H1 < H2
C. H1 > H2
D. H1 > H2
EXPLANATION
When wires are in series, Req/Series=R1+R2 H1=V^2/Req/Series In case of parallel 1/(Req/Parallel)= 1/R1 + 1/R2 H2 =V^2 /Req/Parallel As Req/Series is greater than Req/parallel Hence H1<H2.

QUESTION: A wire has a resistance of 5.5 Ω at 19oC and 21.5 Ω at 200oC. Find the temperature coefficient of resistivity(α) of the material.
A. 0.016 per degree celsius
B. 32 per degree celsius
C. 0.018 per degree celsius
D. 0.00106 per degree Celsius
EXPLANATION
Temperature, T1=19∘C Resistance of the wire at T1, R1=5.5Ω Temperature, T2=200∘C Resistance of the wire at T2, R2=21.5Ω Temperature coefficient of wire= a It is related to temperature and resistance as α=R2−R1/R1(T2−T1) α=21.5-5.5/ 5.5( 200-19) α=16/5.5(181) α=16/995.5 α=0.016 °C^-1.

QUESTION: A uniform chain of mass M and length L is lying on a smooth table, and a part of it is hanging from the table.  The work required to pull the hanging part of the chain onto the table is. Find the part of the chain in terms of its length which is hanging from the table:
A. L/3
B. L/4
C. L/6
D. L/2
EXPLANATION
Incomplete Question.

QUESTION: 100 W heater is switched on for 5 minutes to melt ice. What is the mass of ice that melts at 0C. Specific latent heat of fusion of ice is 334 J/g.
A. 90 g
B. 90 kg
C. 1.5 kg
D. 1.5 g
EXPLANATION
As; P=W/t or W= P×t so, W= 100×(5×60) = 30,000 J Now, as we know that. Q=W so, Q= 30,000J Lf= 334 J/g As; Q=mLf m= Q/Lf = 30,000/334 = 89.82~ 90 g.

QUESTION: The units for absorption power is:
A. Meter
B. Second
C. Henry
D. None of these
EXPLANATION
Since absorptive power is a pure rati, it has no units and dimensions.

QUESTION: If displacement-time graph is a curve, which of the following is correct:
A. Area under graph represent displacement
B. Gradient of the graph is constant
C. Gradient of the tangent of graph represents acceleration
D. Gradient of the tangent of graph represents velocity
EXPLANATION
Remember that if the displacement time graph is a curve, then the gradient of the tangent of the graph represents velocity.

QUESTION: The secondary turns of which of the following transformers is always kept closed for ______ transformer.
A. Power
B. Voltage
C. Current
D. Step down
EXPLANATION
The secondary side of the current transformer is always kept short-circuited in order to avoid core saturation and high voltage induction so that the current transformer can be used to measure high values of currents.

QUESTION: A particle having the charge of 20 electrons on its falls through a potential difference of 100 volts.Calculate the energy acquired by it in electron volt (eV).
A. 2.0 x 10^-2 eV
B. 2.0 x 10^-3 eV
C. 2.0 x 10^2 eV
D. 2.0 x 10^3 eV
EXPLANATION
The energy acquired by the charge can be calculated using formula 🔼U=q🔼V = 20×100 = 2000 eV or 2 × 10^3 eV.

QUESTION: In subatomic world things can be predicted with _____ precision.
A. 1
B. less than 1
C. Absolutely no
D. None of these
EXPLANATION
Remember that the possibility of predicting things in a subatomic world is less than 1.

QUESTION: Dependent Causes/ Independent Causes: Statement: All the schools in the area had to be kept closed for most of the week.  Many parents have withdrawn their children from the local schools.
A. Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect
B. Statement II is the cause, and statement I is its effect
C. Both the statements I and II are independent causes
D. Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes
EXPLANATION
Closing the schools for a week and the parents withdrawing their wards from the local schools are independent issues, which must have been triggered by different individual causes.

QUESTION: Which word is the odd one out?
A. Trivial
B. Unimportant
C. Important
D. Insignificant
EXPLANATION
Trivial, unimportant, and insignificant are all synonyms of each other whereas important is the antonym.

QUESTION: Statements and Actions: Statement The availability of imported fruits has increased in the indigenous market and so the demand for indigenous fruits has been decreased.  I. To help the indigenous producers of fruits, the Government should impose high import duty on these fruits, even if these are not of good quality.  II. The fruit vendors should stop selling imported fruits. So that the demand for indigenous fruits would be increased.
A. Both of them follows
B. None of them follows
C. Only I follows
D. Only II follows
EXPLANATION
The ideas suggested in both I and II represent unfair means to cut competition. The correct way would be to devise methods and techniques such that the indigenous producers could produce better quality fruits and make them available in the market at prices comparable with those of the imported ones. Hence, neither I nor II follows.

QUESTION: Number series  Look at this series 14, 28, 20, 40, 32, 64. What number should come next?
A. 52
B. 56
C. 96
D. 128
EXPLANATION
This is an alternating multiplication and subtracting series: First, multiply by 2 and then subtract 8. Rule = (1st no.) (1st× 2 = 2nd no.) (2nd - 8 = 3rd no.) (3rd × 2 = 4th no.).... Now (14) (14 × 2 = 28) (28 - 8 = 20) (20 × 2 = 40) (40 - 8 = 32) (32 × 2 = 64) (64 - 8 = 56). So the answer is b = 56.

QUESTION: Statements and Actions Statement The Management of School M has decided to give free breakfast from next academic year to all the students in its primary section through its canteen even though they will not get any government grant.  Courses of Action  (I) The school will have to admit many poor students who will seek admission for the next academic year.  (II) The canteen facilities and utensils have to be checked and new purchases to be made to equip it properly.  (III) Funds will have to be raised to support the scheme for years to come.
A. Only II and III follows
B. Only III and I follows
C. Only I and II follows
D. Only I follows
EXPLANATION
Since the school has introduced the scheme without receiving any grant, it needs to pool up the funds and make adequate arrangements to keep the scheme going. So, only II and III follow.

QUESTION: Analogies: Measure is to caliper as direction is to
A. Speed
B. Hiking
C. Needle
D. Compass
EXPLANATION
the instrument to measure something is a caliper so we need to find the instrument to find a direction which is the compass.

QUESTION: Statement and Argument  Statement: Should admission to the professional degrees in Pakistan be given only on merit without any concession to any particular group of students?  Arguments: (I) Yes. This will improve the quality of the professional institutes and degrees as they will be able to complete the degree successfully.  (II) No. This will keep a large number of socially and economically backward students out of the reach of professional institutes and degrees.
A. If argument I is strong
B. If only argument II is strong
C. If both I and II are strong.
D. If neither I nor II is strong
EXPLANATION
Our country seeks to support educationally and economically backward classes for their overall growth and development.

QUESTION: Dependent causes/ Independent causes: Statement: There has been a high increase in the incidents of atrocities against women in the city during the past few months. The police authority has been unable to nab the culprits who are committing crimes against women.
A. Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect
B. Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
C. Both the statements I and II are independent causes
D. Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes
EXPLANATION
An increase in the cases of atrocities on women and the police being unable to nab the culprits involved in the same are independent happenings in themselves.

QUESTION: Fact-Checking: Fact 1 Pictures can tell a story  Fact 2 All storybooks have a picture  Fact 3 Some story books have words  If the above three statements are facts then which of the following statement will also be a fact?  I. Pictures can tell a story better than words can  II. The stories in storybooks are simple  III. Some story books have both pictures and words
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Only III
D. None of them is a fact
EXPLANATION
Statements I and II are not supported by the facts. Statement III is true because if all storybooks have pictures and only some have words, then some storybooks have both words and pictures.

QUESTION: Complete the series Complete the series A2.5, B5, C7.5, _____ .
A. D9
B. D10
C. D9.5
D. D45
EXPLANATION
2.5 is added every time. 7.5+2.5=10

QUESTION: Ohms Law is applicable only when temperature remains
A. changing
B. absolute zero
C. constant
D. None of these
EXPLANATION
This is one of the conditions of Ohms law that it is applicable only when the temperature of the conductor remains constant.

QUESTION: One radian is equal to:
A. 57.3 degrees
B. 47.3 degrees
C. 67.5 degrees
D. 59.5 degrees
EXPLANATION
As, 1 revolution=2 π rad  And, 1 revolution = 360° So, 1 rad= 360°/2π                         = 57.3°

QUESTION: Work done by conservative force is
A. Reversible
B. Non reversible
C. can be both
D. none of them
EXPLANATION
Remember that the work done by a conservative force is reversible.

QUESTION: The efficiency of the heat engine can be defined as:
A. Q2 - 1/Q1
B. Q2 + 1/Q1
C. Q2 + Q1
D. 1- Q2/Q1
EXPLANATION
The efficiency of a heat engine is represented as : n = 1- Q2/Q1.

QUESTION: The waves which propagate by the oscillation of material particles are called
A. matter waves
B. mechanical waves
C. electromagnetic waves
D. microwaves
EXPLANATION
The mechanical waves need material particles for their propagation as they propagate by the oscillation of material particles while electromagnetic waves on the other hand do not need any material particles

QUESTION: Current carrying loop behaves like a
A. monopole
B. dipole
C. quadrupole
D. octupole
EXPLANATION
The current carrying loop behaves like a dipole having two poles north and south.

QUESTION: Rectifier is a device which converts
A. AC to DC
B. DC to AC
C. AC to triangular current
D. DC to triangular current
EXPLANATION
Rectifier is an electronic device which is used to convert alternating current into direct current.

QUESTION: The value of coulomb constant is:
A. 9 x 109 Nm2
B. 9 x 109 Nm2/C2
C. 9 x 10-9 Nm2/C2
D. 9 x 10-9 Nm2
EXPLANATION
Remember that the value of coulomb constant k is = 9 × 109 Nm2/C2

QUESTION: A longitudinal standing wave, in second harmonic mode, is established in a tube that is open at both ends. The length of the tube is 0.80 m. What is the wavelength of the waves that make up the standing wave?
A. 0.20 m
B. 0.40 m
C. 0.80 m
D. 1.60 m
EXPLANATION
As, we know that   Wavelength= 2l/n = 2( 0.8) / 2 = 0.8 m

QUESTION: Inertial frame has :
A. Constant velocity
B. Zero velocity
C. Zero acceleration
D. All of these
EXPLANATION
The frame of reference in which Newtons first law of motion holds, is known as the inertial frame of reference. In an inertial frame of reference, a physical object with zero net force acting on it moves with a constant velocity (which might be zero).The Inertial frame of reference has zero velocity, zero acceleration and constant velocity or uniform velocity.