PMC Paid Practice Tests Series 2022 With Explanation - Test 5

[Shahid]

Prepare the PMC Paid Practice Tests Series 2022 with our comprehensive past paper and explanation guide. Gain valuable insights into the exam format, question types, and essential topics covered. Our detailed explanations will help you understand the reasoning behind each answer, allowing you to strengthen your knowledge and improve your performance. Get a head start on your exam preparation and increase your chances of success with our PMC Paid Practice Tests Series 2022 past paper and explanation resource.

QUESTION: Ali sent his mother a _ _ _ of flowers for her birthday.
A. bar
B. bouquet
C. pack
D. packet
EXPLANATION
Bouquet is the correct collective noun.

QUESTION: Can you please ___ your name at the bottom of the contract?
A. cross
B. answer
C.  sign
D.  lay
EXPLANATION
We typically “sign” our names at the bottom of a document, not “cross”, “answer” or “lay” them.

QUESTION: The ___ climbed up the tree and hid Inside the branches.
A.  deer
B. rabbit
C. squirrel
D. tortoise
EXPLANATION
Among all these animals, squirrels will be most likely to climb trees.

QUESTION: We will go to Dubai. Which tense is used here?
A. Present
B. Past
C. Future
D.  Past Perfect
EXPLANATION
The use of the word “will” is associated with the future tense.

QUESTION: Which one is future tense?
A. They are going to the market.
B. I will play football.
C. We watched a movie yesterday.
D. He has done his work.
EXPLANATION
The use of the word “will” is associated with the future tense.

QUESTION: Which one is correct?
A. I will go to the market.
B.  I will gone to the market
C. I will went to market
D. I will have go to market
EXPLANATION
“I will go to the market” is the correct choice.

QUESTION: The market is nearer to them than _____
A. we
B. ourself
C. us
D. ourselves
EXPLANATION
The explanation for this question will be added soon.

QUESTION: Find the correctly spelt word
A.  Sovereign
B. Soveregn
C. Soverean
D. Sovereln
EXPLANATION
The correct spelling is “sovereign”.

QUESTION: Choose the word wrongly spelt.
A. Semester
B.  Senesent
C.  Sensory
D. Salacious
EXPLANATION
The correct spelling is “sensecent”

QUESTION: I_____ to learn a lot of new words within one month.
A. am going
B. will
C. about
D. can be
EXPLANATION
Only A sounds correct when read out loud.

QUESTION: I woke up ____ five oclock ____ the morning.
A. for ... in
B. at.. in
C. In ... at
D. at .. for
EXPLANATION
“At” and “in” are the correct prepositions.

QUESTION: The weather is pleasent here_____the spring.
A. above
B. around
C. in
D. on
EXPLANATION
The correct preposition is “in”.

QUESTION: Choose the correct spellings of the word
A. Exhebition
B.  Exhibition
C.  Exhabation
D. Exehation
EXPLANATION
Exhibition” is the correct spelling.

QUESTION: Choose the correct spelling of the word.
A. Brucracy
B. Beaurocricy
C. Bureaucracy
D. Bueraucracy
EXPLANATION
“Bureaucracy” is the correct spelling.

QUESTION: Choose the correct spelling of the word
A. Blldlng
B.  Builldlng
C. Building
D. Bulding
EXPLANATION
“Building” is the correct spelling.

QUESTION: Which one is correct?
A. Whatever my father wanted me see, was on top of the highest point of my farm.
B. Whatever my father wanted me to see was on top of the highest point of my farm.
C. Whatever my father want me to see, was on top of the highest point of my farm.
D. None
EXPLANATION
Only option A has the correct punctuation.

QUESTION: Which one is correct?
A. The book that we needed to finish ours research was missing from the library.
B. The book that we need to finish our research was missing from the library.
C. The book that we needed to finish our research was missing from the library.
D. None of the above
EXPLANATION
Option C has the correct grammar and punctuation.

QUESTION: Which one is correct?
A. I set out a breakfast of yogurt and cereal on the kitchen table to my family.
B. I set out a breakfast of yogurt and cereal on the kitchen table from my family.
C. I set up a breakfast of yogurt and cereal on the kitchen table for my family.
D. None of the above
EXPLANATION
Only C is grammatically correct.

QUESTION: A virus has its genome which is enclosed by a protein coat, called:
EXPLANATION
A virus is an acellular organism which has a genome(DNA or RNA) enclosed in a protein coat called capsid.

QUESTION: Viruses are able to recognize the host surface by means of their:
A. Capsid
B. Spikes
C. DNA
D. RNA
EXPLANATION
Viruses recognize the host surface with the help of viral spikes present on the protein capsid.

QUESTION: Reverse transcriptase of HIV is used In:
A. Conversion of viral RNA into viral DNA
B. Conversion of viral RNA Into host DNA
C. Conversion of viral DNA into viral RNA
D. Conversion of host DNA Into viral DNA
EXPLANATION
Reverse transcriptase of HIV uses viral RNA as a template to make the DNA template. This complementary DNA then becomes a part of host DNA, called provirus. This provirus then produces RNA which are enclosed in the copies of the host virus. Thus, in turn, this template is used to make the host DNA.

QUESTION: Human Immunodeficiency virus is:
A. An enveloped, RNA virus
B. An enveloped, DNA virus
C. A non-enveloped, RNA virus
D. A non-enveloped, DNA virus
EXPLANATION
HIV has two single strands of RNA inside HIV has two single strands of RNA inside a protein capsid. This protein capsid is, in turn, enclosed in a shell made of matrix proteins, which is then enclosed by an envelope of lipid bilayer, with glycoprotein spikes embedded in it. s, in turn, enclosed in a shell made of matrix proteins, which is then enclosed by an envelope of lipid bilayer, with glycoprotein spikes embedded in it.

QUESTION: In aerobic respiration, chemiosmosis occurs during :
A. Electron transport chain
B. Photophosphorylation
C. Glycolysis
D. Krebs cycle
EXPLANATION
It is a fact that chemiosmosis in the aerobic respiration occurs during ETC in mitochondria and produces ATP.

QUESTION: One ATP molecule contains 1% of total energy of glucose. In anaerobic reactions how much energy of glucose is released as ATP:
A. 1%
B. 2%
C. 36%
D. 38%
EXPLANATION
In aerobic respiration, 36 molecules of ATP are formed. So; if one molecule of ATP has 1% of energy then 36 molecules will have 36% energy.

QUESTION: Which of the following is the final electron acceptor in respiratory electron transport chain?
A. NADP+
B. Molecular oxygen
C. PS-I
D. PS-II
EXPLANATION
Molecular oxygen accepts two electrons and combines with hydrogen to form water molecules.

QUESTION: Neil Investigation on photosynthesis was carried on :
A. Cyanobacteria
B. Angiosperms
C. Algae
D. Bacteria
EXPLANATION
Neil investigated purple sulfur bacteria and green sulfur bacteria to investigate photosynthesis.

QUESTION: Which of the following is milk sugar?
A. Sucrose
B. Lactose
C. Maltose
D. Starch
EXPLANATION
Lactose is milk sugar. It is composed of glucose and galactose.

QUESTION: When two amino acids such as glycine and alanine are variously arranged to make dipeptides. How many different dipeptide combinations can be produced?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
EXPLANATION
No. of dipeptides = (no. of amino acids)2 No. of dipeptides= 22 = 4

QUESTION: Which of the following bonds maintain the primary structure of a protein
A. Hydrogen bonds
B. Peptide bonds
C. Disulphide bonds
D. Hydrophobic Interaction
EXPLANATION
Two amino acids are joined together to form a protein by the process of condensation with an OH from Carboxyl group liberating with an H from Amino group to form a water molecule. The bond formed in this case is referred to as a peptide bond. This is the primary structure.

QUESTION: Maximum how many carbon atoms does an oligosaccharide contain?
A. 3
B. 7
C. 70
D. Many thousands
EXPLANATION
An oligosaccharide contains units of monosaccharide. The maximum number of carbon atoms in a monosaccharide is seven and the maximum units an oligosaccharide contains is 10. So 7 x 10 = 70 can be the maximum no. of carbon atoms in a monosaccharide.

QUESTION: Cholesterol is not present in ________
A. milk
B. egg white
C. egg yolk
D. fish
EXPLANATION
It is a fact.

QUESTION: Hydrogen bonding produces a regular colied arrangement in proteins called
A. a-hellx
B. β-hellx
C. Tertiary conformation
D. Quaternary structure
EXPLANATION
α-helix is coiled together using hydrogen bonds.

QUESTION: Which of the following Is correct about globular proteins?
A. Insoluble In water
B. Elastic in nature
C. Can be crystalized
D. their final structure is secondary
EXPLANATION
It is a fact.

QUESTION: Which cell organelle is incorrectly matched with its function?
A. Chloroplast - carbon fixation
B. Mitochondria -ATP synthesis
C. Cell membrane - cell recognition
D. Golgl apparatus - Intracellular digestion
EXPLANATION
Lysosomes are responsible for intracellular digestion whereas the golgi apparatus is responsible for the processing of cell secretions.

QUESTION: Which interactions are responsible for the formation of lipid bilayer in the watery environment of the body?
A. Hydrophoblc interactions between fatty acid tails
B. Hydrophobic Interactions between phosphate heads
C. Hydrophilic interactions between fatty acid tails
D. Hydrogen bonding between fatty acid tails
EXPLANATION
Being cylindrical, phospholipid molecules spontaneously form bilayers in aqueous environments. In this energetically most-favorable arrangement, the hydrophilic heads face the water at each surface of the bilayer, and the hydrophobic tails are shielded from the water in the interior.

QUESTION: Which of the following is responsible for giving firmness and box-llke shape to plant cells?
A. Cell wall
B. Cell wall and vacuole
C. Nucleus and vacuole
D. Cell membrane
EXPLANATION
Cell wall of plants gives firmness and rigidity as well as cuboidal shape to plant cells.

QUESTION: Golgi complex was discovered by which scientist?
A. Robert Brown
B. Camillo Golgi
C. De Duve
D. Robert Hooke
EXPLANATION
It is a fact.

QUESTION: Which of these is the right combination of molecules which make up the secondary cell wall in plant cells?
A. Cellulose, lignin and xylem
B. Cellulose, hemicellulose and lignin
C. Cellulose only
D. Cellulose hemicellulose and pectin
EXPLANATION
It is the composition of the secondary cell wall of a plant cell.

QUESTION: Which of the followlng is the system of elongated sac like structures (cisternae) or tubes linking the cell surface membrane and the nuclear envelope?
A. Mirotubules
B. Endoplasmic reticulum
C. Golgi complex
D. Microfilaments
EXPLANATION
Cisternae is found in Golgi and Endoplasmic Reticulum but Endo links cell surface membrane and the nuclear envelope. It is the largest membrane in animal cells

QUESTION: Which one of the following can easily pass through plasma membrane
A. Fat soluble substances
B. Proteins
C. Highly charged materials
D. Polysacchrides
EXPLANATION
Fat soluble substances easily pass through the membrane. Proteins and polysaccharides are large in size, option A and D eliminated. Highly charged materials find it difficult to pass. So C is incorrect.

QUESTION: Endemic goitre relates to which altered function?
A. Increased Pancreas function
B. Increased Thyroid function
C. Decreased Pancreas function
D. Decreased Thyroid function
EXPLANATION
When iodine becomes deficient in the body, thyrotrophin increases in number which causes endemic goitre.

QUESTION: How many hormones does the Islets of Langerhans secrete?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
EXPLANATION
It is a fact.

QUESTION: The anterior part of cerebral hemisphere located in the cerebrum is classified as
A. Ganglion bulbs
B. Axon bulbs
C. Dendrite bulbs
D. Olfactory bulbs
EXPLANATION
Olfactory bulb exists in the anterior part of the cerebral hemisphere.

QUESTION: Graves disease is produced due to which of the following?
A. Under Secretion of thyroxine
B. Under Secretion of cortlcosteroids
C. Overproduction of cortlcosteroids
D. Overproduction of thyroxine
EXPLANATION
Oversecretion of thyroxine causes Graves’ disease which is exophthalmic goitre.

QUESTION: Insufficient secretion of thyroxine In adults causes which of the following disorders?
A. Myxedema
B. Cretinism
C. Goiter
D. Addisons disease
EXPLANATION
Deficiency of thyroxine later in life causes Goitre which is due to iodine shortage in diet.

QUESTION: Which of the following is second largest part of the brain?
A. Cerebellum
B. Cerebrum
C. Hypothalamus
D. Thalamus
EXPLANATION
Cerebrum is the largest while cerebellum is the second largest part of the brain.

QUESTION: Which of the following is true about cnidarians?
A. They are deuterostomic animals
B. They are triploblastic animals
C. They are protostomous animals
D. They are diploblastic animals
EXPLANATION
Cnidarians possess an ectoderm and an endoderm but lack a mesoderm, therefore they are diploblastic.

QUESTION: Which of the following animal phylum is included in series deuterostomia?
A. Platyhelminthes
B. Annelida
C. Chordata
D. Mollusca
EXPLANATION
Echinodermata, Hemichordata and Chordata are deuterostomia.

QUESTION: Which of the following Invertebrate phylum consists of the most abundant species on planet Earth:
A. Porifera
B. Cnidarla
C. Arthropoda
D. Mollusca
EXPLANATION
Phylum Arthropoda has the most abundant species around the globe and its class Insecta occupies the largest number of species among other classes.

QUESTION: Which among the following lacks the nervous system?
A. Flat worms
B. Annelida
C. Cnidaria
D. Sponge
EXPLANATION
Porifera (sponges) is the most primitive phylum of Animalia and lacks a nervous system.

QUESTION: The enzyme substrate complex is formed in which part of the enzyme molecule?
A. Binding site
B. Allosteric site
C. Catalytic site
D. On all over the surface of enzyme
EXPLANATION
Complex forms on the binding site of the active enzyme molecule.

QUESTION: In non-competitive inhibition, the extent of inhibition depends only on?
A. Concentration of enzyme
B. Concentration of substrate
C. Concentration of ES complex
D. Concentration of Inhibitor
EXPLANATION
As the inhibitor causes inhibition, the greater the number of inhibitors, the greater will be the inhibition.

QUESTION: Complete the following sentence: When the salivary amylase is reached in stomach cavity _____________.
A. It becomes an apoenzyme
B. It is denatured
C. It participates in protein
D. It remains unaffected
EXPLANATION
Nothing happens because the stomach provides optimum conditions for salivary amylase to begin digestion.

QUESTION: Which of the following may attach on active site of an enzyme?
A. Products
B. Coenzyme
C. Activator
D. Inhibitor
EXPLANATION
Competitive inhibitors restrict the activity of enzymes by blocking the active site. They resemble in shape with the substrate. Their effect can be reduced by increasing substrate concentration.

QUESTION: Which of the following part of enzyme recognize the substrate?
A. Binding site
B. Active site
C. Catalytic site
D. Overall structure of an enzyme
EXPLANATION
Active site recognizes the specific substrate. Binding site binds it and catalytic site then catalyses it.

QUESTION: Which of the following shows significant effect of Genetic drift ?
A. Animal population
B. Plant population
C. Large population .
D. Small population
EXPLANATION
Genetic Drift is the change in the frequency of a locus at a time. It occurs in small populations where it may lead to the loss of a particular allele.

QUESTION: Which of the following was proposed by Lamarck in his theory?
A. Overproduction
B. Struggle for existence
C. Natural selection
D. Use and disuse of organs
EXPLANATION
According to Lamarckism, the organs which are used extensively develop themselves in a better way and the organs which are not used, lose their existence.

QUESTION: Most likely people who perform tough manual work can develop
A. thick subcutaneous fat in their palms
B. greater quantity of melanin all over the body.
C. Strong calf muscles
D. certain aquired characters
EXPLANATION
Lamarckism says that when some organ is used again and again it develops in a better way and this is an acquired character.

QUESTION: According to Darwin, the most critical factor for evolution Is:
A. Migration
B. Mutation
C. Natural selection
D. Genetic drift
EXPLANATION
Darwin said that nature selects and chooses the fittest.

QUESTION: Lungs are spongy due to the presence of million of?
A. Alveoli
B. Parabronchi
C. Air sacs
D. Bronchioles
EXPLANATION
The alveoli have pores to exchange gases. This porous structure of alveoli gives a spongy look to lungs.

QUESTION: Functional units of lungs are called which of the followng?
A. Alveoli
B. Parabronchi
C. Air sacs
D. Bronchioles
EXPLANATION
Functional unit of lungs is the air sac whereas alveoli is the structural unit of lungs.

QUESTION: Which of the following fish drink large amount of seawater and excrete concentrated urine resulting in maximum salt excretion and minimal water loss?
A. Hagfish
B. Freshwater fish
C. Bonyfish
D. Cartilaginous fishes
EXPLANATION
Bony fishes live in marine ecosystems and they do not have specialised organs to cope up with extreme salty environments. They use this mechanism to maintain homeostasis.

QUESTION: Which respiration is directly involved in the production of energy, necessary for all living activities?
A. Organismic
B. Cellular
C. Breathing
D. External respiration
EXPLANATION
Cellular respiration is responsible to provide energy to each and every living cell.

QUESTION: The mechanism of regulation, generally between organism and Its environment, of solutes and the gain and the loss of water Is called?
A. Hemostasis
B. Homeostasis
C. Osmoregulation
D. Thermoregulation
EXPLANATION
Osmoregulation occurs to maintain homeostasis by maintaining the solute and solvent levels based on the environment around an organism.

QUESTION: Iliac vein from the lower limbs unite to form:
A. Vena cava
B. Renal vein
C. Hepatic portal vein
D. Cardiac vein
EXPLANATION
Both the iliac veins and many other veins combine together and drain in inferior vena cava which carries it to heart.

QUESTION: Plasma proteins are synthesized In:
A. Gall bladder
B. Liver
C. Spleen
D. Skin
EXPLANATION
Plasma proteins are synthesized by the liver and perform a variety of specific functions such as transport of lipids and boosting immunity.

QUESTION: A bacterial cell envelope does not include :
A. Slime
B. Capsule
C. Cell wall
D. Cell membrane
EXPLANATION
Cell Envelope consists of external coverings which includes cell wall, slime and capsule.

QUESTION: A periplasmic space is:
A. The space between outer membrane and peptidoglycan layer of cell wall
B. The space between cell membrane and cell wall
C. The space within the cell
D. The space between phospholipid bilayer
EXPLANATION
The space between the cell wall and the plasma membrane is known as the periplasmic space. Proteins that cannot enter the cell wall stay here to perform functions such as enzymatic activities.

QUESTION: Which of the following bacteria are also called recyclers of nature?
A. Pathogenic bacteria
B. Parasitic bacteria
C. Photosynthetic bacteria
D. Saprotrophic bacteria
EXPLANATION
Saprotrophic bacteria feed on detritus and they are the major decomposers along with fungi.

QUESTION: A chemical which is applied on non living surface in order to control bacteria Is called:
A. Disinfectants
B. Antiseptic
C. Vaccines
D. Antibiotics
EXPLANATION
Chemical agents like halogens, phenols, alcohol, formaldehyde, potassium permanganate and they are used as disinfectants.

QUESTION: Which of the following Is true about staphylococcus?
A. It is chain of spherical bacteria
B. It is bunch of spherical bacteria
C. It is square of spherical bacteria
D. It is cube of spherical bacteria
EXPLANATION
Staphylococcus bacteria shows random bacteria scattered around.

QUESTION: End of menstrual cycle in old age is called?
A. Menarche
B. Abortion
C. Menopause
D. Telophase
EXPLANATION
Beginning at age 35-40, the menopause is a point in a womans reproductive cycle a year after her very last period takes place.

QUESTION: The union of meiotically produced specialized sex cells from each parents produce?
A. Corpus luteum
B. Embryo
C. Zygote
D. Neuroglial cells
EXPLANATION
Egg and sperm combine to form zygote.

QUESTION: Which of the following is the number of chromosomes in human zygote?
A. n
B. 2n
C. 3n
D. 4n
EXPLANATION
The human zygote is diploid, receiving a haploid chromosome from each parent.

QUESTION: In reproduction semen refers to which of the following?
A. Fluid and sperms
B. Blood cells and plasma
C. Blood and sperms
D. Egg and sperms
EXPLANATION
Semen is a mixture of sperm and fluid.

QUESTION: Which of the following part of sperm cell penetrates into the ovum during fertilization?
A. Cytoplasm
B. Nucleus
C. Acrosome
D. Mitochondria
EXPLANATION
Acrosomes have enzymes that break down the wall of the egg, thus making entrance of the sperm easier.

QUESTION: Hip Joint and shoulder joint are the examples of:
A. Ball and Socket Joint
B. Hinge Joint
C. Fibrous Joint
D. Cartilaginous Joints
EXPLANATION
They are hinge joints as they rotate in all possible directions.

QUESTION: Cardiac tissue is made up of :
A. Cardiac muscle
B. Smooth muscles
C. Skeletal muscles
D. Gut muscles
EXPLANATION
Heart muscles/cardiac muscles make up the heart.

QUESTION: The composition of skeletal muscle is:
A. Myosin only
B. Actin only
C. Actin, myosin and troponin
D. Actin, myosin and tropomyosin
EXPLANATION
Skeletal muscle is composed of three types of proteins; actin, myosin, and tropomyosin.

QUESTION: The skeletal system consists of:
A. All bones in body
B. All muscles and tendons
C. All body organs both soft and hard tissues
EXPLANATION
Skeletal system consists of all bones of the body and all the connective tissues including ligament, tendon, cartilage.

QUESTION: What is the ratio of homozygous to heterozygous individuals in F2 generation of monohybrid cross
A. 1 : 1
B. 1 : 2
C. 1 : 3
D. 3 : 1
EXPLANATION
In mendels law during monohybrid crosses, their F2 generation included 1 homozygous and 3 heterozygous.

QUESTION: The genetic Information for a specific character Is determlned by
A. Genome
B. Transposon
C. Gene
D. Trait
EXPLANATION
Gene has all the information of a specific character.

QUESTION: Blood group AB negative can receive:
A. Blood group A positive
B. Blood group B positive
C. Blood group O positive
D. Any of the negative blood group
EXPLANATION
It lacks antibodies and can accept blood from any individual but it must also lack Rh antigens.

QUESTION: Blood group O negative can receive:
A. Blood group A positive
B. Blood group B positive
C. Blood group O negative
D. Any of the positive blood group
EXPLANATION
As it has both anti-A and anti-B antibodies, it can only receive blood from O blood type which lacks Rh antigens.

QUESTION: Which of the following is the wildtype phenotype of eye color in Drosophila
A. Black eyes
B. White eyes
C. Light red eyes
D. Bright red eyes
EXPLANATION
Bright red color of the eyes is associated with the wild type trait whereas white colored eyes are considered dominant due to the monohybrid cross giving a 3:1 reading for white to red phenotypes respectively.

QUESTION: Which of the following disease has greater incidence in human male than female?
A. Haemophilia
B. Cystic fibrosis
C. Thalassemia
D. Cretinism
EXPLANATION
Haemohilia is a sex linked disease and it zig zags from paternal grandfather to grandson.

QUESTION: The number of formula units in 18.0g of CaCo2 are
A. 6.022x1022
B. 6.022x1023
C. 3.011x1022
D. 3.011x1023
EXPLANATION
Molar mass of CaCo2 is given as; M = 40 + (58 × 2)     = 158g mol-1 Now we find the number of moles; n = m/M    = 18g/158g mol-1    = 0.111mol No. of Formula Units = n × NA No. of Formula Units = 0.111mol × 6.023×1023 = 1 × 6.023×1022

QUESTION: In a particular chemical reaction the actual yield was 70gm, while that of Its theoretical yield Is 100gm. The pecentage yield of the said reatlon is:
A. 100%
B. 70%
C. 40%
D. 20%
EXPLANATION
Percentage yield= (Actual yield/Theoretical yield)×100

QUESTION: In the process of iron rusting, which of the following is the limiting reactant?
A. Iron
B. Oxygen
C. Air
D. Water
EXPLANATION
Iron would be the limiting reactant because air and moisture are readily available while the iron itself is of finite quantity, and would therefore be depleted first.

QUESTION: Which of the following does not have a complete octet?
A. O2-
B. N5+
C. Ca2+
D. K+
EXPLANATION
The N5+ ion has only 2 electrons, thus its octet is incomplete.

QUESTION: The value of Azimuthal quantum number (I) depends upon:
A. n
B. m
C. s
D. p
EXPLANATION
A value of the azimuthal quantum number can indicate either an s, p, d, or f subshell which varies in shape. This value depends on (and is capped by) the value of the principal quantum number, i.e. the value of the azimuthal quantum number ranges between 0 and (n-1).

QUESTION: In the discharge tube positive rays moves in which direction
A. Towards anode
B. Towards cathode
C. Move randomly
D. Move towards vaccum in the tube
EXPLANATION
Positive rays move towards the cathode in a discharge tube.

QUESTION: What is the shape of s-orbital
A. Lobed
B.  Spherical
C. Dumbbell
D. Sausage
EXPLANATION
The s-orbital has the simplest shape of all the orbitals .e. spherical.

QUESTION: According to kinetic theory, which of the following statements ls/are correct? a. Gases consist of particles (atoms or mo!ecules)ln continuous random motion. b. Collisions between particles are elastic. c. The volume occupied by particles is negligibly small d. Attractive forces between particles are significant at room temerature and pressure.
A. a and b
B. a,b and c
C. b and c
D. d
EXPLANATION
All these statements are correct according to the kinetic molecular theory.

QUESTION: 1 atm is equal to the following EXCEPT:
A. 760 mm of Hg
B. 76 cm of Hg
C. 760 torr
D. 1.47 psi
EXPLANATION
1 atm is equal to 760 torrs, 760 mm Hg, and 76 cm Hg.

QUESTION: The temperature at which volume of all the ideal gases becomes zero is:
A. 0 K
B. 0˚C
C. 0˚F
D. 32˚F
EXPLANATION
At absolute zero (0 K, or -273˚C), the volume of all gases becomes negligible.

QUESTION: Which of the following substances has the largest Intermolecular forces of attraction ?
A. H2O
B. H2S
C. H2Se
D. H2Te
EXPLANATION
O, S, Se, Te, and Po all belong to Group VI-A. Electronegativity decreases down the group. The strongest hydrogen bonds would be formed in H2O.

QUESTION: Which of the following solids shows the phenomenal of Isomorphism?
A. Molecular Solids
B.  Covalent solids
C. Ionic solids
D. Metallic solids
EXPLANATION
Polymorphism and isomorphism are mostly associated with ionic crystals.

QUESTION: Who proposed valence bond theory for metals?
A. Loren
B.  Drudge
C. L.Pauling
D. Maxwell
EXPLANATION
The valence bond theory was proposed by Linus Pauling.

QUESTION: Ksp (Solubility product) depends upon:
A. Pressure
B. Concentration
C. Temperature
D. Volume
EXPLANATION
The solubility product is a kind of equilibrium constant and its value depends on temperature. Ksp usually increases with an increase in temperature due to increased solubility.

QUESTION: Nitrogen and Hydrogen present in equilibrium mixture in Haber Process remain in
A. Solid state
B. Liquid state
C.  Gaseous state
D. Mixture of solid and gas
EXPLANATION
Nitrogen and hydrogen remain in gaseous equilibrium in the Haber process.

QUESTION: Upon passing Hydrogen chloride gas through a brine solution, which of the following is observed?
A. Concentration of NaCl(a.q) decreases
B. Crystalization of NaCl take place
C. Concentraion of Na+ ion increases
D. Concentrtlon of Cl- ion decreases
EXPLANATION
When HCl gas is passed through concentrated NaCl solution, then NaCl gets precipitated due to the common ion effect. It is the method for the purification of NaCl.

QUESTION: At ordinary temperature, only few molecules possess energy equal to
A. Kinetic energy
B. Potential Energy
C. Activation energy
D. Ionization Energy
EXPLANATION
At ordinary temperature, few molecules would have energy equal to or greater than the activation energy for a reaction to take place.

QUESTION: The slowest reaction among these is
A. Neutralization
B. Double Decomposition Reactions
C.  Ionic Reactions
D. Hydrogenation Reaction
EXPLANATION
Ionic reactions are generally very fast, while reactions involving molecules of covalent compounds are usually slower.

QUESTION: Born Haber cycle is used to determine:
A. Enthalpy of lattice
B. Enthalpy of formation
C.  Enthalpy of neutrallzation
D. Enthalpy of solution
EXPLANATION
Born-Haber cycle is used to determine lattice enthalpies.

QUESTION: Which of the following law Is an application of first law of thermodynamics?
A. Hesss law
B. Daltons law
C. Moseleys Law
D. Avogadros law
EXPLANATION
Hess’s Law is an application of the first law of thermodynamics.

QUESTION: Cu, Au and Ag are least reactive, because they have _____ ?
A. Negative reduction potential
B.  Negative oxidation potential
C. Positive reduction potential
D. Negative electrode potential
EXPLANATION
In general, the ions of very late transition metals -- those towards the right-hand end of the transition metal block, such as copper, silver, and gold -- have high reduction potentials. In other words, their ions are easily reduced.

QUESTION: The element has highest reduction potential in electrochemical series Is;
A. Zinc
B. Fluorine
C.  Oxygen
D.  Lithium
EXPLANATION
Fluorine is one of the best oxidizing agents and has the highest reduction potential value (+2.87V).

QUESTION: The requirement for bond formation In HF can be met by
A. 2 orbitals & 1 electron
B. 2 orbital & 2 electron
C. 1 orbital & 1 electron
D. 1 orbital & 2 electron
EXPLANATION
The formation of a covalent bond is the result of atoms sharing some electrons. One electron would be shared between fluorine and hydrogen. The bond is created by the overlapping of two atomic orbitals.

QUESTION: Covlant radius is defined as half of the single bonded length between _____ atoms covalently bonded in a molecule.
A. Two Different
B. Two Simultaneous
C. Any Two
D. Two Similar
EXPLANATION
When a covalent bond is present between two atoms, the covalent radius can be determined. When two atoms of the same element are covalently bonded, the radius of each atom will be half the distance between the two nuclei because they equally attract the electrons.

QUESTION: When repulsive forces tend to push the atoms apart and the potential energy of the system is_______
A. No Effect
B. Decrease
C.  Increase
D. Change in alternation
EXPLANATION
This repulsive force would tend to make the potential energy of the system increase.

QUESTION: The Halide of aluminum is ___ ?
A. Electron deficient
B.  Lewis acid
C. High melting point
D. High boiling point
EXPLANATION
Lewis acid is defined as an electron-pair acceptor and both boron and aluminum in their tri-halides (MX3) possess six electrons in their valence shell. Hence, to complete their octet, they can accept a lone pair of electrons. Thus, both behave as Lewis acids.

QUESTION: Among alkali metals which of the following property is high for Li?
A. Hydration energy
B. Ionic radius
C. Electropositivity
D. Atomic size
EXPLANATION
Since Lithium is the smallest (in size) among all the alkali metals, it is known to have the highest hydration energy among all alkali metals. Another property of lithium that imparts high hydration energy to it is its high charge density.

QUESTION: Among alkaline earth metals the one which shows the least chemical reactivity Is:
A. Be
B.  Ca
C. Mg
D. Ba
EXPLANATION
The reactivity of alkaline Earth metals increases from the top to the bottom of the group. Thats because the atoms get bigger from the top to the bottom, so the valence electrons are farther from the nucleus.

QUESTION: Alkali metal oxides dissolve In water to give:
A. Alkaline solution
B. Neutral solution
C. Acidic solution
D. Buffer solution
EXPLANATION
The oxides of alkali metals dissolve in water to give alkaline solutions.

QUESTION: Electrons flow from _____
A. Anode to cathode
B. Cathode to anode
C. Dont flow
D. In either directions
EXPLANATION
Electrons always flow from the anode to the cathode or from the oxidation half cell to the reduction half cell. In terms of the Eocell of the half-reactions, the electrons will flow from the more negative half-reaction to the more positive half-reaction.

QUESTION: A galvanic cell is setup
A. When a less reactive metal contacts a more reactive metal via an electrolyte
B. When two reactive metals contact via an electrolyte
C. When two reactive metals are placed in any solutiin
D. When two metals come In direct contact
EXPLANATION
A galvanic cell consists of two different metals (electrodes) connected through a conducting solution (an electrolyte) and also connected externally completing a circuit.

QUESTION: The breaking of large molecules by heating at high temperature and pressure is called:
A.  Reforming
B. Steam cracking
C. Catalytic cracking
D. Thermal cracking
EXPLANATION
Thermal cracking is a process in which hydrocarbons present in crude oil are subject to high heat and temperature to break the molecular bonds and break down long-chained, higher-boiling hydrocarbons into shorter-chained, lower-boiling hydrocarbons.

QUESTION: Which of the followlng has anti-knocking properties?
A. (CH3CH2)4Sn
B. (CH3CH2)4Pb
C.  (CH3CH2)4Ge
D.  (CH3CH2)4 Si
EXPLANATION
Organic lead (tetraethyl lead; TEL) is used as an antiknock agent in gasoline and jet fuels.

QUESTION: Which of the following fraction of petroleum has lowest boiling point at STP?
A. Kerosene oil
B. Lubricating oil
C. Gasoline
D. Natural gas
EXPLANATION
Natural gas, due to its gaseous nature, has the lowest boiling point at STP.

QUESTION: Benzene Is less reactive than its corresponding alkene due to:
A. More Unsaturation
B. More Saturation
C. Less electronegativity difference bwteen c and H-atom
D. Delocalization of pi electrons
EXPLANATION
Benzene is less reactive due to extensive delocalization which causes stability. Benzene prefers substitution reactions over addition reactions.

QUESTION: What Is the structure of benzene?
A. Regular, flat planar hexagon
B. Regular 30 hexagon
C. Regular, flat planar octagon
D. Regular, planar pentagon
EXPLANATION
All aromatic compounds have a planar structure so as benzene. Also, it is hexagonal so its shape is hexagonal planar.

QUESTION: The less reactivity of Benzene is due to:
A. Sigma bond
B.  Delocalization of pi electron
C. Less electronegativity of C atom
D. Hexagonal structure
EXPLANATION
Benzene is less reactive due to extensive delocalization which causes stability. Benzene prefers substitution reactions over addition reactions.

QUESTION: What is the Catalyst in Friedel-Crafts Alkylation?
A. AlCl2
B. Al2S3
C. AlH3
D. Al2O3
EXPLANATION
Aluminium chloride is a powerful Lewis acid. It is most widely used in the halogenation (especially chlorination) of aromatic groups as a catalyst, as well as in the reaction of Friedel Crafts.

QUESTION: In termination step, two free radicals combine to form
A. Another free radicals
B. A molecule
C. A molecular Ion
D. A cation
EXPLANATION
A termination step is a reaction in which radicals are consumed but no new radicals are generated. Termination decreases the concentration of radicals in the system.

QUESTION: The correct name of CH2Cl2 Is:
A. Methyl chloride
B. Methylene chloride
C.  Chloroform
D. Carbonyl chloride
EXPLANATION
Dichloromethane is also called methylene chloride.

QUESTION: Which one of the following Is a strong Nucleophlle?
A. Cl-
B. Br-
C. OH-
D. HSO4-
EXPLANATION
Strong bases are strong nucleophiles. The strongest base in this question is OH-

QUESTION: 2-chlorobutane belongs to:
A. Primary Alkyl halides
B. Secondary Alkyl Halides
C. Tertiary Alkyl Halides
D. Quarternary Alkyl halides
EXPLANATION
2-Chlorobutane is a secondary (2°) alkyl halide. The Cl atom is attached to the #2 carbon, this carbon has 2 C-C bonds.

QUESTION: Which of the following reactions are given by alcohol and phenol both?
A. Esterification
B. Nitrosation
C. Amide formation
D.  Lucas Reaction
EXPLANATION
Both alcohols and phenols undergo esterification.

QUESTION: Iodoform test is used to check the presence of
A. Amines
B. Carbonyl compounds
C. Carboxylic acid
D. Alkyl halides
EXPLANATION
The iodoform test is used to check the presence of carbonyl compounds with the structure R-CO-CH3 or alcohols with the structure R-CH(OH)-CH3 in a given unknown substance.

QUESTION: Acetone is less reactive than acetaldehyde due to:
A. More Steric hindrance offered by Its methyl groups
B. Electron withdrawing nature of its methyl groups
C. Its Carbonyl carbon is sp2 hybridized
D. Oxygen of carbonyl group Is more electronegative than carbon atom.
EXPLANATION
Aldehydes are typically more reactive than ketones due to the following factors. Aldehydes are less hindered than ketones (a hydrogen atom is smaller than any other organic group). The carbonyl carbon in aldehydes generally has more partial positive charge than in ketones due to the electron-donating nature of alkyl groups. Aldehydes only have one e- donor group while ketones have two.

QUESTION: Formaldehyde reacts with which one of the following to give primary alcohols
A. Fehlings reagant
B. Benedicts Reagant
C. Grignards reagant
D. Millons reagant
EXPLANATION
Formaldehyde reacts with Grignard’s reagent to give primary alcohols

QUESTION: Corniplete the following reaction: CH3COOC2H5 +H2O ----->
A. Both HOC2H5 and CH3CO2H
B. Both HOCH3 and CH3CO3H
C. HOC3H6 Only
D. CH3CO2H Only
EXPLANATION
Esters have the general formula RCOOR′, where R may be a hydrogen atom, an alkyl group, or an aryl group, and R′ may be an alkyl group or an aryl group but not a hydrogen atom. (If it were a hydrogen atom, the compound would be a carboxylic acid.) This means that the CH3CO- part comes from the acid and the –OC2H5 part comes from the alcohol. Hence the products obtained on hydrolysis would be CH3COOH and C2H5OH.

QUESTION: The aliphatic monocarboxylic acids is obtained from
A. fats and oils
B. proteins and oils
C. fats and proteins
D. fats only
EXPLANATION
Fats and oils are hydrolyzed to form aliphatic monocarboxylic acids

QUESTION: Acetic acid was first isolated from:
A. Ants
B. Butter
C. Milk
D. Vinegar
EXPLANATION
Acetic acid which is a dilute solution is used extensively as vinegar.

QUESTION: A solid compounds exists is more than one crystalline form, this phenomenon is called
A. Allotropy
B.  Isomorphism
C. Polymorphism
D. Isomerism
EXPLANATION
Polymorphism is a phenomenon in which a compound exists in more than one crystalline form. That compound that exists in more than one crystalline form is called polymorphic, and these forms are called polymorphs, and these forms are called polymorphs of each other.

QUESTION: Which of the following Is not true about Polymorphs?
A. Have same chemical properties
B. lnterconvertible
C. Have same formula unlt
D. Have different formula unit
EXPLANATION
Polymorphs are essentially the same compound, but exist in different physical forms. Their formula units would be the same.

QUESTION: Sp3 hybridization is also called as:
A. Sigma
B. Pi bond
C. Coordinate covalent
D. Hydrogen bond
EXPLANATION
The six C‒H sigma bonds are formed from overlap of the sp3 hybrid orbitals on C with the 1s atomic orbitals from the hydrogen atoms. The carbon- carbon sigma bond is formed from overlap of an sp3 hybrid orbital on each C atom.

QUESTION: Transition elements form which bond with ligands?
A. Covalent
B. Ionic
C. Metallic
D. Coordinate Covalent
EXPLANATION
The transition elements and main group elements can form coordination compounds, or complexes, in which a central metal atom or ion is bonded to one or more ligands by coordinate covalent bonds. Ligands with more than one donor atom are called polydentate ligands and form chelates.

QUESTION: Which one of the following property belongs to covalent bond?
A. Fast reaction
B. Non-directional
C. Non-rigid structures
D. Isomerism
EXPLANATION
Covalent bonds are directional in nature. Therefore, they exhibit the phenomenon of isomerism.

QUESTION: !f the bird catches its prey from a height which was initially at rest then momentum wlll conserve for:
A. Bird
B. Prey
C. Either bird and prey
D. Both bird and prey
EXPLANATION
Momentum is conserved when no external force acts. In this case when the bird catches the prey, an external force (bird) acts and momentum no longer remains conserved.

QUESTION: A wagon of mass 1000 kg moves 50 km/h on smooth rails. Later, a mass of 250 kg Is placed in the wagon. What is the velocity with which it moves?
A. 20 km/h
B. 60 km/h
C. 40 km/h
D. 25 km/h
EXPLANATION
Using law of conservation of momentum Initial momentum = final momentum m1v1= m2v2 1000 x 50 =1250 x V2 50000/1250 = V V= 40 km/hr

QUESTION: A force of 50 dynes is acted on a body of mass 5g which is at rest for an interval of 3 seconds, then impulse is
A. 0.00015 N.s
B. 0.0015 N.s
C. 0.15 N.s
D. 1.6 N.s
EXPLANATION
1 dyne=1x10-5 I = Ft I = 50x10-5 x 3 I = 1.5 x 10-3

QUESTION: The total momentum of a flock of identical birds could be zero only if the birds are:
A. Taking off from the ground
B. Flying in the same direction
C. Flying in different dlrections
D. Very tired and coming down to rest
EXPLANATION
m1v1-m2v2 = 0

QUESTION: Which of the following quantities has no effect on simple projectile motion?
A. Velocity
B. Force
C. Mass
D. Acceleration
EXPLANATION
Vertical acceleration in a simple projectile motion remains constant and horizontal acceleration is zero.

QUESTION: If a particle launched with 5m/s at angle of 45 degree, then time of flight is:
A. 1.44 s
B. 0.72 s
C. 0.6 s
D. 0.5 s
EXPLANATION
Using formula for the time of flight T = 2 visin θ / g T = 2 x 5 sin 45 / 9.8 T = 0.72 s

QUESTION: Kinetic energy of an oscillating simple pendulum at the equilibrium position is:
A. Maximum
B. Minimum
C. Zero
D. Information insufficient
EXPLANATION
At equilibrium position, the velocity of a simple pendulum is greater than at any other position and hence its kinetic energy is also maximum.

QUESTION: A car and a train both have same kinetic energy. Which one has greater momentum?
A. Car
B. Train
C. Both have same
D. No change
EXPLANATION
As K.E = p2 / 2m       Kinetic energy is same, so       p2 ∝ 2m        p ∝ (m)½ P and m are directly proportional. As the mass of the train is greater its momentum will be greater.

QUESTION: Unit of power in british engineering system is:
A. Horse power
B. Watt
C. Kilowatt
D. Joule
EXPLANATION
1 hp = 746 W

QUESTION: A 10kW motor pumps out water from a well 10 meter deep. What is the quantity of water pumped out per second?
A. 9.2 kg
B. 9.5 kg
C. 10.2 kg
D. 10.8 kg
EXPLANATION
P = W/t P= mgh / t 103 x 1 x 10 x 10 = m M = 10. 2 kg

QUESTION: The acceleration produced by the centripetal force is always:
A. Directed parallel to the center of the circle
B. Directed perpendicular to the center of the circle
C. Directed towards the center of the circle
D. Directed away from the center of the circle
EXPLANATION
Centripetal acceleration is always directed towards the centre of the circle.

QUESTION: The earth rotates 360o abouit its axis in about 24 hours. By how many degrees will it rotate In 2 hours?
A. 90
B. 60
C. 30
D. 15
EXPLANATION
Earth rotates 15 degrees every hour 360/24 = 15 Earth rotates 30 degrees in 2 hours 15 x 2 = 30

QUESTION: The direction associated with angular displacement is given by:
A. Left-hand rule
B. Head to tail rule
C. Right-hand rule
D. Fleming left hand rule
EXPLANATION
The right hand rule gives us the direction associated with angular displacement. The rule states that if the axis is held with the right-hand and the fingers are curled in the direction of rotation of the body, then the thumb will point in the direction of angular velocity.

QUESTION: Centripetal force is provided by ____ in a frictional road around a circular path:
A. Friction force
B. Normal force
C. Gravitational force
D. Pseudo forces
EXPLANATION
Centripetal force will be provided by the frictional force in a circular path.

QUESTION: Speed of sound does not depend on:
A. Pressure
B. Density
C. Adiabatic Index
D. Amplitude
EXPLANATION
Speed of sound does not change with change in pressure. It depends on temperature, so at the same temperature, even if the pressure was doubled, the speed of sound would remain the same.

QUESTION: The speed of sound cannot be greater than:
A. Speed of shock wave
B. Speed of light
C. Speed of water wave
D. Speed of sound in vacuum
EXPLANATION
Speed of light is always greater than the speed of sound which is approximately 3.8×108 m/s.

QUESTION: The sound waves have no:
A. Frequency of the wave
B. Energy
C. Nodes
D. Intensity
EXPLANATION
Sound waves are longitudinal in nature. Transverse waves have nodes whereas longitudinal waves lack nodes.

QUESTION: Sound waves are considered as ____ waves:
A. Compressional
B. Transverse
C. Longitudinal
D. Shock
EXPLANATION
Sound waves have no nodes and are considered longitudinal.

QUESTION: Stationary waves are produced by:
A. Reflection
B. Interference
C. Diffraction
D. Rarefaction
EXPLANATION
When two waves travelling in the opposite direction and have the same frequency interfere, stationary waves are produced.

QUESTION: When two ends of string are struck together simultaneously such that two troughs are traveling towards each other, than at reaching the centre of string __ is formed:
A. Higher amplitude
B. Lower amplitude
C. Waves die immediately
D. Troughs converted to crest
EXPLANATION
Constructive interference occurs.

QUESTION: Waves which always need medium to travel are _______ waves:
A. Light
B. Stationary
C. Sound
D. Both sound and stationary
EXPLANATION
Sound waves are mechanical waves and need material medium to propagate and stationary waves are also sound waves.

QUESTION: For a monatomic ideal gas of 6 mole Cp/Cv:
A. 1.4
B. 1.67
C. 5
D. 3
EXPLANATION
Cp/Cv for a monatomic gas is 1.67 despite its no. of moles.

QUESTION: Cp for monatomic gas in terms of R is:
A. 3/5 R
B. 5/3 R
C. 5/4 R
D. 5/2 R
EXPLANATION
Value to remember.

QUESTION: Cp = 49 J/K.mole and Cv= 35 J/K,mol then what type of gas Is this?
A. Diatomic
B. Monatomic
C. Triatomic
D. Nonlinear-triatomic
EXPLANATION
Cp/Cv = 49 / 35 = 1.40 1.40 is for monoatomic gas.

QUESTION: Whlch of the following forces are only attractive?
A. Electrostatic forces
B. Gravitational forces
C. Magnetic forces
D. Forces between same poles of magnet
EXPLANATION
There is no concept of repulsion in gravitational forces.

QUESTION: Parallel combination of two capacitor C1 and C2 Is:
A. C1+ C2
B. (C1)(C2)
C. (C1C2)/(C1+C2)
D. C1/C2
EXPLANATION
In a parallel combination of capacitors, equal capacitance is equal to the sum of individual capacitances.

QUESTION: Charge inside conductor is:
A. Possible
B. Can be greater than zero
C. Zero
D. Negative always
EXPLANATION
The net charge in a conductor is always zero. All charge resides on the surface.

QUESTION: The electric flux through a closed surface depends upon the:
A. Size of the surface
B. Shape of the surface
C. Position of charge enclosed in the surface
D. Magnitude of charge enclosed In the surface
EXPLANATION
Electric flux depends on the magnitude of charge enclosed and medium used as stated by Gauss’s Law.

QUESTION: Electric potential determines the flow of?
A. Atom
B. Molecule
C. Compound
D. Charge
EXPLANATION
Charge flows from higher to lower potential.

QUESTION: In parallel plate capacitor Capacitance depends on:
A. Charge
B. Electric field
C. Voltage
D. Cross-sectional area
EXPLANATION
Capacitance in parallel plate capacitors depends upon the area of each plate, dielectric medium between the plates and the distance between them.

QUESTION: Ohms law is valid at ___ temperatures
A. Constant
B. Varying
C. Low
D. High
EXPLANATION
Ohm’s law states that the voltage and current are directly proportional to each other provided temperature and other physical states remain constant.

QUESTION: In order to achieve high accuraccy, the slide wire of a potentiometer should be
A. As long as possible
B. As short as possible
C. Neither too small not to large
D. Very thick
EXPLANATION
Accuracy of the potentiometer can be easily increased by decreasing the potential gradient across the potentiometer wire and that can be done by increasing its length.

QUESTION: _______ is a source of electrical energy having fixed polarity and terminals
A.  Motor
B. Metals
C. Battery
D. Generator
EXPLANATION
A motor cannot generate electricity, it merely converts electrical energy to mechanical energy. A generator converts mechanical energy to electrical energy, but the EMF produced alternates, i.e., reverses polarities at every instant. Only a battery provides D.C. voltage, where the polarities and terminals do not change.

QUESTION: Correct form of ohms law
A. I = VR
B. V = I/R
C. V = IR
D. R= IV
EXPLANATION
V=IR is the correct form of Ohm’s Law.

QUESTION: Ohms law is valid when the temperature of conductor Is :
A. Very low
B.  Very high
C. Varying
D.  Constant
EXPLANATION
Ohm’s Law holds only when the temperature of the conductor is constant.

QUESTION: The specific resistance of a conductor Increases with:
A. Increase in temperature
B. increase in cross-sectional area
C.  Decrease in length
D. decrease In cross-sectional area
EXPLANATION
Specific resistance increases with increasing temperature for conductors. It decreases in the case of semi-conductors.

QUESTION: When two magnets come closer such that same poles face each other than field lines:
A.  Intersect
B. Repel
C. Come closer
D. Nothing will happen
EXPLANATION
Like poles repel while unlike poles attract.

QUESTION: When two positive charge particles moves towards each other In opposite direction:
A. Repulsion occurs
B. Attraction occurs
C. Nothing will happen
D. Charge will be neutralized
EXPLANATION
Unlike charges attract and like charges always repel.

QUESTION: When two positive and negative particles are moving opposite to each other in uniform magnetic field:
A. Deflection occurs
B. Attraction occurs
C. Repulsion occurs
D. Nothing will happen
EXPLANATION
Charged particles undergo deflection in magnetic fields.

QUESTION: The induced emf will oppose the flux producing It Is according to:
A. Gravitational law
B. Coulomb law
C. Newtons law
D.  Lenzs law
EXPLANATION
Lenzs law states that the direction of the electric current induced in a conductor by a changing magnetic field is such that the magnetic field created by the induced current opposes changes in the initial magnetic field.

QUESTION: The Lenzs law is used to find out the direction of
A. Current induced in circuit
B. Potential energy
C. Magnetic field
D. Force
EXPLANATION
Lenz’s law is used to find the direction of induced current, as illustrated below:

QUESTION: Transformers works on principle of:
A. Electromagentic induction
B. Coulombs law
C.  Gausss law
D. Amperes law
EXPLANATION
A transformer works on the principle of mutually induced emf where the primary coil induces emf onto the secondary coil.

QUESTION: Transformer can convert ______
A. Low DC voltage
B. High DC voltage
C.  Battery voltage
D. AC voltage
EXPLANATION
A transformer can only increase or decrease A.C. voltages.

QUESTION: Eddy currents flow in:
A. Open loops
B. Closed loops
C. Straight llnes
D.  Vertical loops
EXPLANATION
Eddy currents are loops of electrical current induced within conductors by a changing magnetic field in the conductor according to Faradays law of induction or by the relative motion of a conductor in a magnetic field.

QUESTION: Ripple factor of half wave rectifier Is:
A. 1.21
B. 0.8
C.  0.6
D. 0.4
EXPLANATION
The ripple factor of a halfwave rectifier is 1.21.

QUESTION: Planck constant is named after:
A. Einstein
B.  Newton
C. Maxwell
D.  Max planck
EXPLANATION
It is quite obvious that Planck’s constant would have been named after Max Planck.

QUESTION: Photocell is based on:
A. Photoelectric effect
B. Compton effect
C. Photoluminescence
D.  Pair production
EXPLANATION
A photocell converts light energy to electrical energy and works on the principle of the photoelectric effect.

QUESTION: A beam of electrons can be:
A. Reflected
B. Refracted
C. Reflected and refracted
D. Polarized
EXPLANATION
Electrons show both particle and wave nature, therefore they can be reflected and refracted.

QUESTION: Spectral lines is like a ----- of absorbed or emission energy in a spectrum:
A. Charged Pattern
B. Fingerprint Pattern
C. Discharged Pattem
D. Scattered Pattern
EXPLANATION
The pattern consists of discrete lines, therefore “fingerprint pattern” is the most suitable choice.

QUESTION: The black body always __ radiations:
A. Emit
B. Absorb
C.  Both Emit And Absorb
D.  Reflects
EXPLANATION
A black body or blackbody is an idealized physical body that absorbs all incident electromagnetic radiation, regardless of frequency or angle of incidence. The name black body is given because it absorbs all colors of light. A black body also emits black-body radiation.

QUESTION: How many up quarks in proton:
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
EXPLANATION
A proton is made up of two up quarks and one down quark.

QUESTION: Which particle has no charge
A. Electrons
B.  Proton
C.  Neutron
D. Positron
EXPLANATION
Neutrons are neutral particles, meaning that they have no charge.

QUESTION: The electrons are accelerated in microscopes to produce
A. X-rays
B. Beta rays
C.  High resolution images
D. Gamma rays
EXPLANATION
Electrons are accelerated in microscopes to produce high-resolution images.

QUESTION: When source is moving towards an observer at rest, then ________ increases.
A. Wavelength
B. Frequency
C. Wavelength and frequency both
D. Depends on the situation each time
EXPLANATION
When the source moves towards a stationary observer, the apparent frequency of sound increases by Doppler effect.

QUESTION: I- There has been opposition by the protesiors over the governments decision of removal of subsidy on fertilizers. II- The governments has decided to remove subsidy on some of the items to bring reform to the economy.
A. Statement 1 is the cause and statment II is its effect.
B. statement II is the cause and statement i is the effect
C. both statements I and II are independent causes
EXPLANATION
The government’s economic reforms involve removing the subsidy on fertilizers, prompting farmers to protest.

QUESTION: Statement: There was a spurt in criminal activities in the city during the recent festlval season.   Courses of Action: I. The police should immediately Investigate Into the causes of this increase. II. In the future the police should take adequate precautions to avoid the recurrence of such situation during festivals. Ill. The known criminals should be arrested before any such season.
A. Only I and III follow.
B.  Only II follows
C. c
EXPLANATION
Only I and III follow. The police ought to find out the lackings in existing security arrangements and make up for these inadequacies to strengthen security and thus prevent criminal activities in the forthcoming festival. So, both I and II follow. Arresting known criminals does not ensure safety, for a novice can also indulge in crime. So, III does not follow.

QUESTION: Pick the word which is always associated with: Electrical Energy.
A. Light
B. Cars
C. Power
D. Water
EXPLANATION
The word “light” is typically associated with electricity.

QUESTION: Daniyal has been visiting friends In his flat for the past two weeks. He Is leaving tomorrow morning and his flight Is very early. Most of his friends live fairly close to the airport. Usman lives ten miles away. Farhan lives five miles away, Numan, seven miles. Ali is farther away than Farhan, but closer than Numan. Approximately how far away from the airport Is Ali?
A. Nine miles
B. Seven mlles
EXPLANATION
Ali would be between five and seven miles from the airport

QUESTION: A boy walks 30 killometer in the north direction, after that he take a right turn and walks 40 meters. After that he takes another right turn and walks 40 meter more, and finally, he took the right turn and stops after walking 40 meters more. Find the distance of The boy from the initial position.
A. 5m
B. 10m
C. 15m
EXPLANATION
Explanation is given below:

QUESTION: Only one meaningful word can be formed by rearranging the letters of the given jumbled word. Find out that word.  MUSPOPAPOTIH
A. METAMORPHIC
B. PHILANTHROPIST
C. HIPPOCAMPUS
D. HIPPOPOTAMUS
EXPLANATION
Count the number of letters of the word given in the question and then corroborate it with the options.